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orthopedics

Practice targeted AMC-style multiple-choice questions on orthopedics.

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A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe testicular pain on the right side. He reports no trauma or previous episodes. On examination, the right testis is swollen, tender, and lies higher in the scrotum compared to the left. The cremasteric reflex is absent on the affected side. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Doppler ultrasound of the scrotum
B. Urgent surgical exploration
C. Analgesia and observation
D. Empirical antibiotics for epididymitis
E. Manual detorsion attempt
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A 65-year-old man with a Popeye deformity has persistent pain and weakness despite conservative management. What is the next step?

A. Refer for surgical repair.
B. Observe for 6 months.
C. Order an MRI.
D. Start physical therapy.
E. Prescribe NSAIDs.
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A 60-year-old man with a Popeye deformity has no pain but reports mild weakness in supination. What is the most appropriate management?

A. Surgical repair
B. NSAIDs
C. Corticosteroid injection
D. Observation
E. Physical therapy
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A 45-year-old weightlifter presents with sudden pain and a bulge in his arm after lifting a heavy weight. On examination, there is a Popeye deformity. What is the most likely mechanism of injury?

A. Traumatic rupture of the biceps tendon.
B. Degenerative tear
C. Inflammatory tendinitis
D. Repetitive overhead activity
E. Nerve compression
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A 31-year-old man presents with gradual onset lateral knee pain that worsens with running and has no history of trauma. The pain is localized above the joint line, and there is no swelling. What is the likely diagnosis?

A. Patellofemoral pain syndrome
B. Quadriceps tendon tear
C. Lateral collateral ligament sprain
D. Iliotibial band syndrome
E. Lateral meniscus tear
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A 31-year-old man presents with gradual onset lateral knee pain that worsens with running. There is no history of trauma. The pain is localized above the joint line, and there is no swelling. What is the likely diagnosis?

A. Lateral meniscus tear
B. Iliotibial band syndrome
C. Patellofemoral pain syndrome
D. LCL sprain
E. Quadriceps tendon tear
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A 70-year-old man presents with a vertebral fracture after a minor fall. Reviewing risk factors for osteoporosis, which of the following is the most likely risk factor?

A. Absence of family history of osteoporosis.
B. High dietary calcium intake
C. Previous fragility fracture
D. Regular vigorous exercise
E. High BMI
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A 50-year-old man presents with a deformity of his right arm. On examination, there is a bulge in the mid-arm, and the shoulder appears flattened. He reports weakness when flexing his elbow. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Rupture of the long head of the biceps tendon.
B. Acromioclavicular joint injury
C. Glenohumeral arthritis
D. Anterior shoulder dislocation
E. Rotator cuff tear
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