← Back to Topics

amlodipine

Practice targeted AMC-style multiple-choice questions on amlodipine.

Related Topics

Gynaecomastia
Image by ProloSozz CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 55-year-old man presents to his general practitioner with a six-month history of bilateral breast tenderness and swelling. He is otherwise asymptomatic, reporting no nipple discharge, skin changes, or palpable lumps. His medical history includes well-controlled hypertension on amlodipine. He denies illicit drug use or significant alcohol intake. On examination, the finding shown in the image is noted. Given this presentation, what is the most appropriate initial diagnostic step?

A. Advise lifestyle modification and review in three months.
B. Serum hormonal profile including testosterone, oestradiol, LH, FSH, prolactin, and hCG.
C. Referral for surgical consultation and potential biopsy.
D. Bilateral diagnostic mammography to rule out malignancy.
E. Ultrasound examination of the breast and axillary lymph nodes.
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question

A 72-year-old man with a history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and chronic kidney disease (CKD) presents to his general practitioner for a routine check-up. His current medications include metformin, insulin glargine, amlodipine, and aspirin. His blood pressure today is 150/90 mmHg. Laboratory results show a serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dL (baseline 2.0 mg/dL), potassium of 5.4 mEq/L, and a urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio (ACR) of 350 mg/g. The GP decides to add an ACE inhibitor to his medication regimen to help manage his blood pressure and proteinuria. One week later, the patient returns complaining of fatigue and muscle weakness. Repeat laboratory testing reveals a serum creatinine of 3.1 mg/dL and a potassium of 6.2 mEq/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

A. Discontinue the ACE inhibitor and administer calcium gluconate
B. Add a potassium-sparing diuretic to counteract the hyperkalemia
C. Continue the ACE inhibitor and add a loop diuretic
D. Prescribe a potassium-binding resin and continue the ACE inhibitor
E. Reduce the dose of the ACE inhibitor by 50% and monitor renal function closely
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question

A 68-year-old male with a history of hypertension and stable angina is prescribed amlodipine. He returns after two weeks complaining of significant ankle edema. What is the most appropriate initial management step?

A. Add a beta-blocker to counteract the effects of amlodipine.
B. Advise the patient to elevate his legs and wear compression stockings.
C. Reduce the dose of amlodipine.
D. Switch to an alternative antihypertensive such as an ACE inhibitor or ARB.
E. Prescribe a diuretic to manage the edema.
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question

A 72-year-old man with a history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and chronic kidney disease (CKD) presents to his general practitioner for a routine check-up. His current medications include metformin, insulin, amlodipine, and aspirin. His blood pressure today is 150/90 mmHg. Laboratory results show a serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dL (221 micromol/L) and a potassium level of 5.4 mEq/L. The GP decides to add an ACE inhibitor to his treatment regimen to help manage his blood pressure and provide renal protection. One week later, the patient returns complaining of fatigue and muscle weakness. Repeat laboratory tests reveal a serum creatinine of 3.1 mg/dL (274 micromol/L) and a potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

A. Add a potassium-binding resin (e.g., sodium polystyrene sulfonate) and continue the ACE inhibitor.
B. Prescribe a loop diuretic to counteract the hyperkalemia and continue the ACE inhibitor.
C. Refer the patient to a nephrologist for urgent dialysis.
D. Reduce the dose of the ACE inhibitor by 50% and recheck renal function and potassium levels in one week.
E. Discontinue the ACE inhibitor and monitor renal function and potassium levels.
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question

A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe headache, nausea, and vomiting. He has a history of hypertension and is currently on amlodipine. On examination, he is drowsy but arousable, with a blood pressure of 210/120 mmHg and a heart rate of 90 bpm. Neurological examination reveals a left-sided hemiparesis and a right-sided facial droop. A CT scan of the head shows a hyperdense lesion in the right basal ganglia with surrounding edema. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management step?

A. Intravenous labetalol to lower blood pressure
B. Oral aspirin to prevent further clot formation
C. Immediate surgical evacuation of the hematoma
D. Intravenous alteplase for thrombolysis
E. Intravenous mannitol to reduce intracranial pressure
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question
Gynaecomastia
Image by ProloSozz CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 62-year-old man presents with a 4-month history of bilateral breast enlargement and tenderness. He denies weight loss, fever, or changes in bowel habit. His medical history includes hypertension managed with amlodipine. On examination, vital signs are stable. The physical findings are demonstrated in the image. There is no palpable testicular mass. Given the clinical presentation and the findings shown, which of the following investigations is the most appropriate initial step to determine the underlying cause?

A. Mammography of both breasts
B. Fine needle aspiration of the breast tissue
C. Serum testosterone, oestradiol, LH, FSH, prolactin, and hCG
D. Trial of tamoxifen
E. Liver function tests and renal function tests
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question

A 62-year-old man with a history of poorly controlled hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to his general practitioner for a routine check-up. His current medications include metformin, gliclazide, and amlodipine. His blood pressure today is 160/95 mmHg. His creatinine is 140 umol/L (previously 110 umol/L). His electrolytes are normal. The GP decides to add an ACE inhibitor to his regimen. Which of the following investigations is MOST important to repeat within 1-2 weeks of commencing the ACE inhibitor?

A. Full blood count
B. Fasting blood glucose
C. Serum creatinine and electrolytes
D. Urine albumin creatinine ratio
E. Liver function tests
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question