hypertension

A 60-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe chest pain radiating to his back. He describes the pain as tearing in nature. His blood pressure is 180/100 mmHg in the right arm and 160/90 mmHg in the left arm. On examination, there is a new diastolic murmur. What is the most appropriate initial investigation?

A 70-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe headache, nausea, and vomiting. He has a history of hypertension and is currently on antihypertensive medication. On examination, he is drowsy and has a blood pressure of 180/110 mmHg. A CT scan of the brain shows a hyperdense area in the right basal ganglia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 55-year-old man, non-smoker, presents for a health check. BP 135/85 mmHg, total cholesterol 5.5 mmol/L, HDL 1.2 mmol/L. No personal history of CVD or diabetes. Family history of premature CVD in father. BMI 28. Based on Australian guidelines, what is the most appropriate initial management step?

A 65-year-old man with hypertension is started on a medication that blocks the angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE). What is the most common side effect of this class of drugs?

A 62-year-old man with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to the emergency department complaining of palpitations and lightheadedness. He reports that the symptoms started suddenly about an hour ago. He denies any chest pain, shortness of breath, or syncope. His medications include metformin and lisinopril. On examination, he is alert and oriented. His blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, heart rate is irregularly irregular at 140 bpm, respiratory rate is 18 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation is 97% on room air. An ECG is performed, which shows an absence of P waves, irregularly irregular R-R intervals, and narrow QRS complexes. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 72-year-old man with a history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and chronic kidney disease (CKD) presents to his general practitioner for a routine check-up. His current medications include metformin, insulin glargine, amlodipine, and aspirin. His blood pressure today is 150/90 mmHg. Laboratory results show a serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dL (baseline 2.0 mg/dL), potassium of 5.4 mEq/L, and a urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio (ACR) of 350 mg/g. The GP decides to add an ACE inhibitor to his medication regimen to help manage his blood pressure and proteinuria. One week later, the patient returns complaining of fatigue and muscle weakness. Repeat laboratory testing reveals a serum creatinine of 3.1 mg/dL and a potassium of 6.2 mEq/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

A 70-year-old male presents to his general practitioner complaining of mild, chronic lower back pain that has been present for several months. He describes the pain as a dull ache, worse with prolonged standing. He has a significant past medical history including hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and a 50-pack-year smoking history, all of which are currently managed with medications. He denies any acute abdominal pain, pulsatile sensation, or leg symptoms. On physical examination, his vital signs are stable: blood pressure 135/85 mmHg, heart rate 72 bpm, respiratory rate 14 breaths/min, and oxygen saturation 99% on room air. Abdominal examination is soft, non-tender, with no palpable masses. Peripheral pulses are symmetric and strong. As part of the investigation into his chronic back pain, a contrast-enhanced CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed. An axial view from the scan is shown. Based on the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the provided image, which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 72-year-old male with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia presents for a routine follow-up. He is asymptomatic. A contrast-enhanced CT scan of the abdomen was performed as part of a screening protocol. An axial view is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A 72-year-old male presents to his general practitioner for a routine check-up. He reports a history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and a 40-pack-year smoking history. He denies any abdominal pain, back pain, or lower extremity claudication. On physical examination, his vital signs are within normal limits. Auscultation of the abdomen is unremarkable, and peripheral pulses are palpable and symmetric. As part of his cardiovascular risk assessment, a contrast-enhanced CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed. An axial view from the scan is shown. Based on the image and the patient's clinical presentation, which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain radiating to the back. He is a smoker and has a history of hypertension. On examination, he is diaphoretic, with a heart rate of 120 bpm and blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg. Abdominal examination reveals a pulsatile mass in the midline. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 70-year-old man with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia presents to the emergency department with sudden onset, severe chest pain radiating to his back. He is diaphoretic and anxious. His blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A 62-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of right upper quadrant abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. She reports that the pain started gradually but has become increasingly severe and constant. She denies any fever or chills. Her past medical history is significant for hypertension and hyperlipidemia, both well-controlled with medications. On physical examination, she is afebrile, with a heart rate of 92 bpm, blood pressure of 140/85 mmHg, and an oxygen saturation of 98% on room air. Abdominal examination reveals marked tenderness to palpation in the right upper quadrant with guarding. Murphy's sign is positive. The provided image was obtained. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 62-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe headache, nausea, and vomiting. He has a history of poorly controlled hypertension and is currently on no medications. On examination, he is drowsy but arousable, with a blood pressure of 210/120 mmHg and a heart rate of 90 bpm. Neurological examination reveals right-sided hemiparesis and a left gaze preference. A CT scan of the head shows a large hyperdense area in the left basal ganglia with surrounding edema. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

A 68-year-old woman with a history of hypertension presents with a severe headache and altered mental status. Aneurysmal coiling was performed. The image shows a post-operative angiogram. 6 hours later, the patient's GCS decreases. What is the MOST likely cause?

A patient is on metformin 1g BD, with a blood pressure of 135/85 mmHg, HbA1c of 8.5%, no history of cardiovascular disease, fasting blood sugar of 9 mmol/L, and an albumin/creatinine ratio of 500. Which drug should be added to their treatment regimen?

A 68-year-old male presents for a routine check-up. He has a history of smoking and hypertension, managed with lisinopril. He denies any abdominal pain, back pain, or lower extremity claudication. Physical exam is unremarkable. A contrast-enhanced CT scan of the abdomen is performed, the axial view is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 72-year-old male with a history of hypertension presents with a sudden onset of right-sided weakness and expressive aphasia. He underwent endovascular coiling for a PCA aneurysm 1 year ago. The attached image was obtained. What is the MOST likely cause of his current presentation?

A 62-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with confusion and lethargy. Her family reports she has been increasingly forgetful over the past week and has had a decreased appetite. She has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension, for which she takes metformin and lisinopril. On examination, she is disoriented to time and place, with dry mucous membranes and decreased skin turgor. Her blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg, heart rate is 110 bpm, and temperature is 37.2°C. Laboratory tests reveal a serum sodium level of 118 mmol/L, serum osmolality of 260 mOsm/kg, and urine osmolality of 500 mOsm/kg. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

A 4-year-old with abdominal pain and hypertension has this CT. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 40-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe headache, nausea, and vomiting. He describes the headache as the worst he has ever experienced. He has a history of hypertension but is otherwise healthy. On examination, he is alert but in distress, with a blood pressure of 180/110 mmHg, heart rate of 90 bpm, and respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute. Neurological examination reveals neck stiffness but no focal neurological deficits. A CT scan of the head shows no acute intracranial hemorrhage. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe chest pain radiating to his back. He describes the pain as tearing in nature. He has a history of hypertension and is a smoker. On examination, his blood pressure is 180/110 mmHg in the right arm and 160/100 mmHg in the left arm. His heart rate is 110 bpm, and he has diminished pulses in the left radial artery. A chest X-ray shows a widened mediastinum. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe headache, nausea, and vomiting. He has a history of hypertension and is currently on amlodipine. On examination, he is drowsy but arousable, with a blood pressure of 210/120 mmHg and a heart rate of 90 bpm. Neurological examination reveals a left-sided hemiparesis and a right-sided facial droop. A CT scan of the head shows a hyperdense lesion in the right basal ganglia with surrounding edema. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management step?

A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe headache, nausea, and vomiting. He describes the headache as the worst he has ever experienced. He has a history of hypertension but is otherwise healthy. On examination, he is alert but in distress due to the headache. His blood pressure is 180/110 mmHg, heart rate is 90 bpm, and he has no focal neurological deficits. A CT scan of the head shows no acute intracranial hemorrhage. What is the next best step in management?

A 58-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of right groin pain that started approximately 6 hours ago. He reports noticing a bulge in his groin for several months, which he could usually push back in. However, today he is unable to reduce it, and the pain has become progressively severe. He denies any fever, nausea, or vomiting. His past medical history includes hypertension and hyperlipidemia, both well-controlled with medications. On examination, his vital signs are stable: blood pressure 130/80 mmHg, heart rate 80 bpm, respiratory rate 16 bpm, and temperature 37.0°C. Abdominal examination is benign. Examination of the groin reveals the finding shown in the image. The area is tender to palpation. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 72-year-old male presents to the ED with increasing shortness of breath and epigastric pain, especially when lying down. He has a history of GORD, hypertension and COPD. His vitals are stable. An X-ray is performed. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 52-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with fatigue, increased thirst, and frequent urination over the past three months. She has a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia, for which she takes lisinopril and atorvastatin. Her BMI is 32 kg/m². On examination, her blood pressure is 140/85 mmHg, and her heart rate is 78 bpm. Laboratory tests reveal a fasting plasma glucose of 8.5 mmol/L and an HbA1c of 7.2%. She is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management step for this patient according to Australian guidelines?

A 45-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 3-month history of fatigue, weight loss, and abdominal pain. He has a history of type 2 diabetes and hypertension. On examination, he has a palpable mass in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen. Laboratory tests reveal anemia and elevated serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH). A CT scan of the abdomen shows splenomegaly and multiple hypodense lesions in the spleen. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 65-year-old man with a history of hypertension and ischemic heart disease presents to the emergency department with worsening shortness of breath, orthopnea, and peripheral edema. On examination, he has elevated jugular venous pressure, bilateral basal crackles, and pitting edema in the lower limbs. An echocardiogram shows an ejection fraction of 35%. What is the most appropriate initial management step for this patient?

A 68-year-old male presents for a routine check-up. He has a history of smoking and hypertension, managed with lisinopril. He denies any abdominal pain, back pain, or lower extremity claudication. Physical exam is unremarkable. A contrast-enhanced CT scan of the abdomen is performed, the axial view is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 68-year-old man with a history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and stable angina is scheduled for elective hernia repair surgery. He is currently on aspirin, metformin, lisinopril, and atorvastatin. His last angina episode was over a year ago, and he has no history of myocardial infarction. What is the most appropriate preoperative management step to minimize his cardiovascular risk during surgery?

A 68-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset of left-sided hemianopia and mild right-sided weakness. Her symptoms began approximately 4 hours prior to arrival. Initial neurological examination reveals intact language function and no cognitive deficits. A CT angiogram was performed, followed by endovascular coiling. The provided image shows a post-operative angiogram. Despite the intervention, the patient's hemianopia persists, and her weakness has slightly worsened. What is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 45-year-old man with a history of hypertension presents to the emergency department with palpitations and lightheadedness. His ECG shows a regular narrow-complex tachycardia at a rate of 180 bpm. There are no visible P waves, and the QRS duration is 0.08 seconds. He is hemodynamically stable. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?

A 58-year-old man presents with concerns about breast enlargement over the past year. He denies pain or nipple discharge. He takes medication for hypertension. Examination reveals the findings in the image. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial investigation?

A 72-year-old male presents to the ED with increasing shortness of breath and epigastric pain, especially when lying down. He has a history of GORD, hypertension and COPD. His vitals are stable. An X-ray is performed. What is the MOST likely underlying cause of his presentation?

A 45-year-old Aboriginal man from a remote community presents to the clinic for a routine health check. He has a history of smoking (20 pack-years) and reports drinking alcohol occasionally (3-4 standard drinks per week). He denies any chronic medical conditions. His blood pressure is 145/95 mmHg. BMI is 32 kg/m2. Fasting blood glucose is 6.5 mmol/L. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial management strategy, considering the principles of culturally safe care?

A 55-year-old man with a history of hypertension and smoking presents for a routine check-up. He is concerned about his risk of cardiovascular disease and asks for advice on lifestyle modifications. Which of the following lifestyle changes would most significantly reduce his risk of cardiovascular events?

A 55-year-old male with a history of hypertension presents for a routine check-up. His blood pressure is consistently measured at 150/95 mmHg despite lifestyle modifications. According to Australian guidelines, what is the most appropriate next step in managing his hypertension?

A 72-year-old man with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus is being managed with lisinopril. He presents to the emergency department complaining of lip swelling and difficulty breathing. On examination, his tongue appears swollen. What is the most appropriate immediate management?

A 55-year-old man with a history of hypertension and stable angina is prescribed a new medication. He reports experiencing a persistent dry cough since starting the medication. Which drug is most likely responsible for this side effect?

A 60-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain radiating to her back. She has a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia. On examination, she is hypotensive and tachycardic. Her abdomen is distended and tender, with guarding and rebound tenderness. An abdominal ultrasound reveals a large abdominal aortic aneurysm. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 68-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset of left-sided hemianopia and mild right-sided weakness. Her symptoms began approximately 4 hours prior to arrival. Initial neurological examination reveals a left homonymous hemianopia, mild right hemiparesis (4/5 strength), and intact sensation. A CT angiogram was performed, and the patient underwent endovascular coiling. The image shows a follow-up angiogram post-procedure. Despite the intervention, the patient's left homonymous hemianopia persists, and her right hemiparesis has not improved. What is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 72-year-old man with a history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to the emergency department complaining of exertional chest pain that has been increasing in frequency and severity over the past month. He describes the pain as a pressure-like sensation in the center of his chest, radiating to his left arm, and associated with shortness of breath. The pain typically occurs after walking two blocks and resolves with rest. He denies any recent changes in his medications or lifestyle. On examination, his blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, heart rate is 78 bpm, and oxygen saturation is 96% on room air. An ECG shows normal sinus rhythm with no acute ST-segment changes. Troponin levels are within normal limits. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 68-year-old woman with a history of hypertension presents with a severe headache and altered mental status. Aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage is confirmed. The aneurysm was coiled. The image shows a post-operative angiogram. 6 hours later, the patient's GCS decreases. What is the MOST likely cause?

A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe headache, nausea, and vomiting. He has a history of hypertension and is currently on antihypertensive medication. On examination, he is alert but in distress due to the headache. His blood pressure is 180/110 mmHg, heart rate is 90 bpm, and he has no focal neurological deficits. A CT scan of the head shows a subarachnoid hemorrhage. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management step in this patient?

A 55-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset severe abdominal pain radiating to the back. He has a history of hypertension and is a smoker. On examination, he is diaphoretic and in distress, with a blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg and a heart rate of 110 bpm. Abdominal examination reveals a pulsatile mass in the midline. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 45-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe headache, described as the worst headache of her life. She also reports nausea and photophobia. Her past medical history is significant for hypertension, which is poorly controlled. On examination, she is alert but in distress, with a blood pressure of 180/110 mmHg, heart rate of 90 bpm, and temperature of 37°C. Neurological examination reveals neck stiffness but no focal neurological deficits. A CT scan of the head is performed and shows no acute intracranial hemorrhage. What is the next best step in management?

A 70-year-old man with a history of hypertension and heart failure is being managed with an ACE inhibitor. He presents to the emergency department complaining of dizziness, especially when standing up. His blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg, and his other vital signs are stable. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in managing this patient?

A 55-year-old man presents with the condition shown. He reports taking spironolactone for hypertension. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A 63-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of increasing shortness of breath and epigastric discomfort over the past several months. He reports feeling full quickly after eating only small amounts. He denies any chest pain, fever, or recent weight loss. His past medical history includes hypertension and well-controlled type 2 diabetes. He takes lisinopril and metformin daily. On examination, his vital signs are stable: blood pressure 130/80 mmHg, heart rate 82 bpm, respiratory rate 18 breaths/min, and oxygen saturation 96% on room air. Auscultation of the chest reveals decreased breath sounds at the left base. Abdominal examination reveals mild epigastric tenderness to palpation, but no rebound tenderness or guarding. The provided image was obtained. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 62-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset chest pain and shortness of breath that started 2 hours ago while he was gardening. He describes the pain as a tightness across his chest, radiating to his left arm. He has a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia, and he is a current smoker. On examination, his blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, heart rate is 110 bpm, respiratory rate is 22 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation is 94% on room air. He appears anxious and diaphoretic. An ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate management step?