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cardiology

Practice targeted AMC-style multiple-choice questions on cardiology.

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A 65-year-old man with hypertension is started on a medication that blocks the angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE). What is the most common side effect of this class of drugs?

A. Hyperkalemia
B. Acute kidney injury
C. Angioedema
D. Hypotension
E. Dry cough
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A 62-year-old man with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to the emergency department complaining of palpitations and lightheadedness. He reports that the symptoms started suddenly about an hour ago. He denies any chest pain, shortness of breath, or syncope. His medications include metformin and lisinopril. On examination, he is alert and oriented. His blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, heart rate is irregularly irregular at 140 bpm, respiratory rate is 18 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation is 97% on room air. An ECG is performed, which shows an absence of P waves, irregularly irregular R-R intervals, and narrow QRS complexes. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Synchronized cardioversion
B. Vagal maneuvers
C. Administration of intravenous magnesium sulfate
D. Intravenous amiodarone
E. Rate control with intravenous diltiazem
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A 67-year-old man with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes is scheduled for elective cholecystectomy due to symptomatic gallstones. During the preoperative assessment, he mentions experiencing mild chest discomfort during exertion over the past few weeks. What is the most appropriate next step in his preoperative management?

A. Start the patient on aspirin and beta-blockers immediately
B. Order a preoperative chest X-ray
C. Refer for a cardiology evaluation and possible stress testing
D. Proceed with surgery as planned with close intraoperative monitoring
E. Schedule an urgent coronary angiogram
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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 78-year-old male on warfarin for atrial fibrillation presents with acute dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain. His INR is 7.0. A chest CT is performed (image attached). After initial resuscitation, what is the MOST appropriate intervention?

A. Administer intravenous vitamin K and prothrombin complex concentrate
B. Perform needle thoracostomy
C. Administer intravenous protamine sulfate
D. Administer intravenous furosemide
E. Observe and repeat CT scan in 6 hours
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A 58-year-old man presents to the emergency department with chest pain radiating to his left arm. His ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. What is the most appropriate immediate management?

A. Administer thrombolytic therapy
B. Perform an echocardiogram to assess cardiac function
C. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin and observe
D. Start intravenous heparin and admit to the coronary care unit
E. Administer aspirin and initiate primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)
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A 68-year-old man presents to the emergency department with 90 minutes of crushing chest pain radiating to his left arm. He is diaphoretic and anxious. ECG shows 3mm ST elevation in leads V2-V4. His blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, heart rate 75 bpm. What is the most appropriate immediate next step in management?

A. Arrange urgent coronary CT angiography
B. Administer dual antiplatelet therapy and heparin
C. Prepare for intravenous fibrinolysis
D. Activate the cardiac catheterisation laboratory for primary PCI
E. Obtain serial cardiac biomarkers
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A 65-year-old male with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes presents with stable angina. He is currently on metformin, atorvastatin, and lisinopril. Which of the following medications is most appropriate to add to his regimen to reduce angina symptoms?

A. Diuretic (e.g., hydrochlorothiazide)
B. Beta-blocker (e.g., metoprolol)
C. Angiotensin II receptor blocker (e.g., losartan)
D. Calcium channel blocker (e.g., amlodipine)
E. Nitrate (e.g., isosorbide mononitrate)
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A 72-year-old man with fatigue and a past myocardial infarction at 55 is breathless on stairs, has a 3 kg weight gain, and ankle marks. What is his likely NYHA functional class for chronic heart failure?

A. NYHA Class 3
B. NYHA Class 2
C. NYHA Class 4
D. NYHA Class 1
E. Not enough information to classify.
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A 25-year-old Aboriginal man presents to a remote clinic with increasing shortness of breath on exertion and palpitations over the past month. He recalls having a sore throat as a child but no specific diagnosis. On examination, his pulse is 95 bpm, blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, respiratory rate 20 breaths/min. Auscultation reveals a pansystolic murmur loudest at the apex, radiating to the axilla. There are no signs of heart failure currently. Considering the likely diagnosis and the patient's background, which of the following is the most appropriate initial investigation?

A. D-dimer
B. Cardiac troponin
C. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
D. Chest X-ray
E. Echocardiogram
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A 68-year-old male with a history of hypertension and stable angina is prescribed amlodipine. He returns after two weeks complaining of significant ankle edema. What is the most appropriate initial management step?

A. Add a beta-blocker to counteract the effects of amlodipine.
B. Advise the patient to elevate his legs and wear compression stockings.
C. Reduce the dose of amlodipine.
D. Switch to an alternative antihypertensive such as an ACE inhibitor or ARB.
E. Prescribe a diuretic to manage the edema.
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A 58-year-old man with a history of hypertension and left ventricular systolic dysfunction (LVSD) is being treated with an ACE inhibitor. His blood pressure is well-controlled, but he develops a persistent, dry cough that is affecting his sleep and quality of life. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Add a cough suppressant
B. Switch to an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB)
C. Add a diuretic
D. Discontinue the ACE inhibitor and start a beta-blocker
E. Reduce the dose of the ACE inhibitor
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A contrast enhanced CT scan demonstrating an abdominal aortic aneurysm of 4.8 * 3.8 cm
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 68-year-old male presents for routine follow-up. He is asymptomatic. His past medical history includes hypertension and hyperlipidemia, both well-controlled with medication. Review the provided image. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Prescribe a statin
B. Repeat CT scan in 3 months
C. Referral for immediate surgical repair
D. Annual ultrasound surveillance
E. Initiate beta-blocker therapy
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A 70-year-old man with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia presents to the emergency department with sudden onset, severe chest pain radiating to his back. He is diaphoretic and anxious. His blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Esophageal rupture
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Acute myocardial infarction
D. Pericarditis
E. Aortic dissection
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A contrast enhanced CT scan demonstrating an abdominal aortic aneurysm of 4.8 * 3.8 cm
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 68-year-old male presents for routine follow-up. He is asymptomatic. Review the image. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Commence dual antiplatelet therapy
B. Repeat imaging in 6-12 months
C. Prescribe a statin
D. Initiate beta-blocker therapy
E. Schedule elective surgical repair
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A 68-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and heart failure is admitted to the hospital with increasing shortness of breath and peripheral edema. She is currently taking furosemide 40mg daily. Her blood tests reveal the following: Na+ 130 mmol/L (135-145 mmol/L), K+ 3.1 mmol/L (3.5-5.0 mmol/L), Cl- 95 mmol/L (98-107 mmol/L), HCO3- 32 mmol/L (22-29 mmol/L). What is the most appropriate initial management?

A. Administer intravenous normal saline and continue furosemide at the same dose.
B. Administer an ACE inhibitor and monitor sodium levels.
C. Administer intravenous sodium bicarbonate and increase the dose of furosemide.
D. Hold furosemide, administer intravenous potassium chloride, and restrict free water intake.
E. Administer intravenous calcium gluconate and monitor potassium levels.
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What is the most common cardiac anomaly associated with Noonan syndrome?

A. Atrial septal defect
B. Aortic stenosis
C. Pulmonary stenosis
D. Coarctation of the aorta
E. Ventricular septal defect
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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

An 82-year-old female presents with a 3-month history of intermittent retrosternal burning pain, worse after meals, and occasional shortness of breath on exertion. Vital signs are stable. Physical exam unremarkable. A chest X-ray is performed. Considering the findings on the image, what is the most appropriate initial management step?

A. Reassure the patient that the finding is benign and requires no further action.
B. Urgent surgical consultation for repair.
C. Initiate a trial of proton pump inhibitor therapy.
D. Proceed directly to oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy (OGD).
E. Refer for a stress echocardiogram to rule out cardiac ischaemia.
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Reciprocal ST-depression with ST-elevation in leads II, III, aVF is most likely seen in which leads?

A. V4-V6
B. V7-V9
C. aVL and Lead I
D. V1-V3
E. aVR
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A 68-year-old man with atrial fibrillation is scheduled for elective hip replacement surgery. He is currently on warfarin with a target INR of 2.0-3.0. His INR is 2.5 at the preoperative assessment. What is the most appropriate management of his anticoagulation therapy in preparation for surgery?

A. Stop warfarin 2 days before surgery and start a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) instead
B. Continue warfarin and adjust the dose to achieve an INR of less than 1.5 before surgery
C. Stop warfarin 5 days before surgery and consider bridging with low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) if high thromboembolic risk
D. Switch from warfarin to aspirin 7 days before surgery
E. Stop warfarin 1 day before surgery and resume it immediately after the procedure
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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 68-year-old male on warfarin presents with pleuritic chest pain and mild dyspnea. INR is 4.5. The image was obtained. What is the MOST appropriate initial intervention?

A. Observation and serial chest X-rays
B. Urgent bronchoscopy
C. Vitamin K administration
D. Chest tube insertion
E. IV protamine sulfate
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A farmer successfully treated for acute Q fever presents 6 months later with unexplained weight loss and night sweats. Physical exam reveals a new murmur. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Post-Q fever fatigue syndrome
B. Chronic Q fever endocarditis
C. Reactive arthritis
D. Chronic hepatitis
E. Pulmonary fibrosis
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A 60-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe chest pain that radiates to his back. He describes the pain as tearing in nature. His blood pressure is 180/100 mmHg in the right arm and 160/90 mmHg in the left arm. On examination, there is a new diastolic murmur heard best at the right sternal border. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
B. Perform an ECG
C. Order a CT angiography of the chest
D. Administer aspirin
E. Start intravenous heparin
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A 72-year-old man with a history of heart failure and hypertension is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia. His medications include furosemide, ramipril, and digoxin. On day 3 of admission, he develops new-onset polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (Torsades de Pointes). An ECG shows a QTc interval of 580 ms. Which of the following is the MOST likely contributing factor to his arrhythmia?

A. Pneumonia-related hypoxia
B. Digoxin toxicity
C. Underlying structural heart disease
D. Ramipril-induced bradycardia
E. Electrolyte imbalance secondary to furosemide
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A 62-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute onset chest pain radiating to his left arm and jaw, accompanied by diaphoresis and nausea. He has a history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and hyperlipidemia. On examination, his blood pressure is 160/95 mmHg, heart rate is 95 bpm, respiratory rate is 20 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation is 96% on room air. An ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Initial troponin levels are elevated. He is given aspirin and clopidogrel in the emergency department. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Urgent percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)
B. Intravenous nitroglycerin
C. Coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG)
D. Intravenous thrombolysis
E. Beta-blocker administration
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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male presents with increasing shortness of breath and epigastric discomfort, particularly after meals. He has a history of well-controlled hypertension. An X-ray is performed. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Perform an upper endoscopy
B. Refer for surgical consultation for fundoplication
C. Initiate a proton pump inhibitor and lifestyle modifications
D. Prescribe a prokinetic agent such as metoclopramide
E. Order a barium swallow study
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A 65-year-old man with a history of hypertension and ischemic heart disease presents to the emergency department with worsening shortness of breath, orthopnea, and peripheral edema. On examination, he has elevated jugular venous pressure, bilateral basal crackles, and pitting edema in the lower limbs. An echocardiogram shows an ejection fraction of 35%. What is the most appropriate initial management step for this patient?

A. Initiate digoxin therapy
B. Perform coronary angiography
C. Start oral beta-blockers
D. Administer intravenous furosemide
E. Prescribe oral ACE inhibitors
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A 65-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension presents with exertional dyspnea and fatigue. His physical examination reveals a blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg, a heart rate of 88 bpm, and a soft S4 gallop. There is no peripheral edema. An electrocardiogram shows left ventricular hypertrophy with repolarization abnormalities. Which of the following diagnostic tests would be most appropriate to evaluate for underlying coronary artery disease in this patient?

A. Coronary angiography
B. Cardiac MRI
C. 24-hour Holter monitoring
D. Transthoracic echocardiography without stress
E. Exercise stress echocardiography
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A 72-year-old woman is admitted to the cardiology ward following an episode of syncope. Her past medical history includes hypertension, for which she takes hydrochlorothiazide, and osteoarthritis, managed with regular ibuprofen. An ECG reveals a prolonged QTc interval of 520 ms. She denies any family history of sudden cardiac death or prolonged QT syndrome. Her electrolytes are within normal limits except for a potassium level of 3.4 mmol/L (normal range 3.5-5.0 mmol/L). Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial step in managing this patient?

A. Administer intravenous magnesium sulfate.
B. Initiate treatment with a beta-blocker such as metoprolol.
C. Commence amiodarone therapy.
D. Insert an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD).
E. Correct the hypokalemia and discontinue hydrochlorothiazide.
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A 45-year-old man with a history of hypertension presents to the emergency department with palpitations and lightheadedness. His ECG shows a regular narrow-complex tachycardia at a rate of 180 bpm. There are no visible P waves, and the QRS duration is 0.08 seconds. He is hemodynamically stable. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?

A. Synchronized cardioversion
B. Observation without intervention
C. Intravenous adenosine
D. Vagal maneuvers
E. Intravenous metoprolol
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A 72-year-old man with a history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation presents to the emergency department with worsening shortness of breath and fatigue over the past two weeks. He reports occasional palpitations but denies chest pain or syncope. On examination, his blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, heart rate is 130 bpm (irregularly irregular), respiratory rate is 22 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation is 94% on room air. Jugular venous pressure is elevated, and there are bilateral lung crackles. An ECG shows atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular response. An echocardiogram reveals moderate mitral regurgitation and left atrial enlargement. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management step?

A. Initiation of antiarrhythmic therapy with amiodarone
B. Rate control with intravenous diltiazem
C. Immediate electrical cardioversion
D. Initiation of oral anticoagulation
E. Referral for mitral valve surgery
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A 16-year-old Aboriginal boy from a remote community presents to the local clinic with a two-week history of increasing fatigue, occasional shortness of breath on exertion, and migratory joint pains affecting his knees and ankles. He had a documented episode of acute rheumatic fever (ARF) three years ago, complicated by mild mitral regurgitation, and was commenced on monthly benzathine penicillin G injections for secondary prophylaxis. However, his adherence has been inconsistent over the past year due to difficulties accessing the clinic. On examination, he is afebrile. His pulse is 95 bpm, blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, and respiratory rate 18 breaths/min. Cardiac auscultation reveals a soft apical pansystolic murmur, unchanged from his last review six months ago. There is mild swelling and tenderness in his left ankle joint, but no erythema or warmth. His throat swab for *Streptococcus pyogenes* is negative. Laboratory tests show a CRP of 45 mg/L (normal <5), ESR 60 mm/hr (normal <15), and a normal full blood count. An ECG shows sinus rhythm with no PR interval prolongation. A point-of-care ultrasound shows mild mitral regurgitation. Considering the clinical presentation, history, and the significant burden of rheumatic heart disease in this population, which of the following is the most appropriate immediate management step regarding his secondary prophylaxis?

A. Re-establish and reinforce the importance of regular monthly benzathine penicillin G injections.
B. Increase the dose of benzathine penicillin G to fortnightly injections.
C. Initiate a course of oral corticosteroids for suspected recurrent ARF.
D. Arrange urgent formal echocardiogram to assess for progression of valvular disease.
E. Switch secondary prophylaxis to oral penicillin V daily.
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A 70-year-old woman with a history of hypertension presents with fatigue, shortness of breath, and bilateral leg swelling. Echocardiography shows an ejection fraction of 30%. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?

A. Calcium channel blocker
B. Nitrate therapy
C. ACE inhibitor and beta-blocker
D. Digoxin
E. Diuretic therapy alone
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A 55-year-old man with a history of hypertension and smoking presents for a routine check-up. He is concerned about his risk of cardiovascular disease and asks for advice on lifestyle modifications. Which of the following lifestyle changes would most significantly reduce his risk of cardiovascular events?

A. Adopting a Mediterranean diet
B. Smoking cessation
C. Increasing physical activity
D. Limiting alcohol consumption
E. Reducing dietary salt intake
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A 55-year-old male with a history of hypertension presents for a routine check-up. His blood pressure is consistently measured at 150/95 mmHg despite lifestyle modifications. According to Australian guidelines, what is the most appropriate next step in managing his hypertension?

A. Prescribe a diuretic
B. Increase lifestyle modifications
C. Refer to a cardiologist
D. Start a beta-blocker
E. Initiate an ACE inhibitor
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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 72-year-old patient presents with intermittent chest discomfort and increasing shortness of breath, particularly after meals. Vitals are stable. Physical examination is unremarkable. A chest X-ray is performed. Considering the radiographic findings in the context of the patient's symptoms, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Trial of high-dose proton pump inhibitors
B. High-resolution CT chest
C. Barium swallow study
D. Referral for surgical assessment and repair
E. Urgent cardiac catheterisation
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A 72-year-old man with fatigue, a past myocardial infarction at age 55, breathlessness on stairs, and ankle marks has an LVEF < 40% on echocardiogram. Which of the following medications is known to improve outcomes in Heart Failure with Reduced Ejection Fraction (HFrEF)?

A. Digoxin
B. Verapamil
C. Frusemide
D. Amlodipine
E. Eplerenone
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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

An 82-year-old patient presents to their GP with a 3-month history of intermittent retrosternal chest discomfort, often described as a burning sensation, worse after meals and when lying flat. They also report mild shortness of breath on exertion and occasional regurgitation, but deny significant dysphagia or weight loss. Past medical history includes hypertension and osteoarthritis. Medications are perindopril and paracetamol. On examination, vital signs are stable (BP 130/80, HR 75, RR 16, SpO2 97% on air), and lung sounds are clear. A chest X-ray is performed as part of the workup. Based on the clinical context and the findings demonstrated in the image, what is the most appropriate next step in investigation?

A. Reassure the patient that the X-ray is normal and advise lifestyle modifications
B. Oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy (OGD)
C. Refer for formal cardiac stress testing
D. Commence a trial of high-dose proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy
E. Perform pulmonary function tests (PFTs)
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A 55-year-old man presents to the emergency department with crushing chest pain radiating to his left arm and jaw. He is diaphoretic and appears anxious. An ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. What is the most appropriate immediate management?

A. Order a chest X-ray to rule out other causes
B. Start intravenous beta-blockers
C. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
D. Provide oxygen therapy
E. Administer aspirin and initiate reperfusion therapy
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A 72-year-old man with a history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to the emergency department complaining of exertional chest pain that has been increasing in frequency and severity over the past month. He describes the pain as a pressure-like sensation in the center of his chest, radiating to his left arm, and associated with shortness of breath. The pain typically occurs after walking two blocks and resolves with rest. He denies any recent changes in his medications or lifestyle. On examination, his blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, heart rate is 78 bpm, and oxygen saturation is 96% on room air. An ECG shows normal sinus rhythm with no acute ST-segment changes. Troponin levels are within normal limits. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Stress echocardiography
B. Discharge home with instructions to follow up with his general practitioner
C. Initiate a trial of increased anti-anginal medications and lifestyle modifications
D. Coronary angiography
E. CT angiography of the chest
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A 45-year-old male presents to the emergency department with severe chest pain radiating to his left arm, shortness of breath, and diaphoresis. He has a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia. On examination, he is diaphoretic, and his blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. An ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

A. Administer intravenous fluids to address hypotension
B. Administer beta-blockers to reduce myocardial oxygen demand
C. Administer morphine for pain management
D. Administer aspirin and initiate reperfusion therapy
E. Administer nitroglycerin for chest pain relief
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A 65-year-old patient with a history of DVT presents with sudden onset dyspnoea and pleuritic chest pain. Examination is unremarkable except for mild tachypnoea. Wells score is 4. Which initial investigation is most appropriate in the diagnostic pathway?

A. D-dimer
B. Lower limb ultrasound
C. V/Q scan
D. CT Pulmonary Angiogram (CTPA)
E. Chest X-ray
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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male presents with increasing shortness of breath and epigastric discomfort, particularly after meals. He has a history of well-controlled hypertension and takes aspirin daily. An X-ray is performed. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Prescribe a H2 receptor antagonist
B. Order a barium swallow study
C. Initiate a proton pump inhibitor and lifestyle modifications
D. Perform an upper endoscopy
E. Refer for surgical consultation for fundoplication
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A middle-aged man who already has a 20% cardiovascular risk and is on lifestyle modification and statin therapy: Which one of the following helps you assess his cardiovascular risk?

A. Coronary artery angiogram
B. ECG
C. Exercise ECG
D. Echocardiogram
E. Coronary artery calcium score
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A 55-year-old male presents with chest pain that radiates to his left arm and jaw, accompanied by diaphoresis and nausea. ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Unstable angina
B. Acute inferior myocardial infarction
C. Acute anterior myocardial infarction
D. Pulmonary embolism
E. Aortic dissection
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Right leg affected by warfarin necrosis
Image by Bakoyiannis C, Karaolanis G, Patelis N, Maskanakis A, Tsaples G, Klonaris C, Georgopoulos S, Liakakos T CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 68-year-old female presents with right leg pain and skin changes after starting warfarin for atrial fibrillation 5 days ago. Her INR is currently 3.5. Examination reveals the findings in the image. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Increase the dose of warfarin to achieve a higher INR
B. Start intravenous heparin and continue warfarin
C. Apply compression bandages and elevate the leg
D. Continue warfarin at the same dose and apply topical corticosteroids
E. Stop warfarin, administer vitamin K and start a direct oral anticoagulant
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A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe chest pain radiating to his back. He describes the pain as tearing in nature. He has a history of hypertension and is a smoker. On examination, his blood pressure is 180/110 mmHg in the right arm and 160/100 mmHg in the left arm. His heart rate is 110 bpm, and he has a new diastolic murmur. An ECG shows left ventricular hypertrophy but no ischemic changes. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Immediate thrombolysis
B. Chest X-ray
C. Echocardiography
D. Coronary angiography
E. CT angiography of the chest
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A 62-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with acute onset of chest pain and shortness of breath. She describes the pain as sharp and worse with inspiration. She has a history of deep vein thrombosis and is currently on warfarin. On examination, her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, heart rate is 110 bpm, respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation is 88% on room air. Her jugular venous pressure is elevated, and she has clear lung fields on auscultation. An ECG shows sinus tachycardia with right axis deviation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Acute myocardial infarction
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Pericarditis
D. Pneumothorax
E. Aortic dissection
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A 62-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset chest pain and shortness of breath that started 2 hours ago while he was gardening. He describes the pain as a tightness across his chest, radiating to his left arm. He has a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia, and he is a current smoker. On examination, his blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, heart rate is 110 bpm, respiratory rate is 22 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation is 94% on room air. He appears anxious and diaphoretic. An ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate management step?

A. Administer intravenous morphine for pain relief
B. Administer beta-blockers to control heart rate
C. Administer oxygen to maintain saturation above 95%
D. Administer aspirin and initiate primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)
E. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin and observe for response
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Right leg affected by warfarin necrosis
Image by Bakoyiannis C, Karaolanis G, Patelis N, Maskanakis A, Tsaples G, Klonaris C, Georgopoulos S, Liakakos T CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 75-year-old woman on warfarin for chronic atrial fibrillation presents to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of rapidly worsening pain and discolouration in her right lower leg. She denies trauma. Her INR is 2.8. Physical examination reveals the findings shown in the image. Peripheral pulses are palpable. What is the most appropriate immediate management step?

A. Perform urgent surgical debridement of the affected area
B. Order a Doppler ultrasound of the leg to rule out deep vein thrombosis
C. Stop warfarin and administer Vitamin K and heparin
D. Increase the dose of warfarin to achieve a higher INR
E. Administer broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics for suspected cellulitis
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A middle-aged man with a 20% estimated cardiovascular risk is already on lifestyle modifications and statin therapy. Which of the following investigations can help further assess or reclassify his cardiovascular risk?

A. Coronary artery angiogram
B. Echocardiogram
C. Stress echocardiogram
D. Coronary artery calcium score
E. Exercise ECG
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