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dermatology

Practice targeted AMC-style multiple-choice questions on dermatology.

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A 32-year-old male presents to his GP complaining of a new, intensely itchy rash on his wrists and ankles. On examination, there are multiple small, flat-topped, polygonal, violaceous papules. Some of the papules have fine white lines on their surface. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Lichen planus
B. Psoriasis
C. Tinea corporis
D. Contact dermatitis
E. Atopic dermatitis
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Facial eosinophilic granuloma. Red-brown nodule on the nose. Clearly visible follicular structures ("peau d'orange").
Image by Sand, Michael, et al. CC BY 2.0 · Source

A 35-year-old male presents to his general practitioner with a lesion on his nose that has been present for approximately 3 months. He initially thought it was a persistent pimple but it has not resolved and seems to be slowly growing. He denies pain, itching, or bleeding from the lesion. He has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medications. He works outdoors but reports using sunscreen inconsistently. On examination, vital signs are stable. The lesion is as shown in the image. There are no other skin lesions noted elsewhere. Regional lymph nodes are not palpable. Based on the appearance of the lesion shown, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Advise observation for a further 3 months to assess for changes
B. Order a full blood count and inflammatory markers
C. Perform cryotherapy in the clinic
D. Referral to a dermatologist for assessment and biopsy
E. Prescribe a course of topical antibiotic cream
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Facial eosinophilic granuloma. Red-brown nodule on the nose. Clearly visible follicular structures ("peau d'orange").
Image by Sand, Michael, et al. CC BY 2.0 · Source

A 45-year-old male presents to his GP with a lesion on his nose that has been slowly enlarging over the past six months. He reports no pain, itching, or bleeding. He has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medications. On examination, vital signs are stable. The image shows the appearance of the lesion. Given the clinical presentation and morphology, what is the most appropriate initial step in management?

A. Punch biopsy of the lesion
B. Reassure the patient and arrange review in 12 months
C. Prescribe topical antibiotic cream
D. Prescribe high-potency topical corticosteroid cream
E. Arrange immediate wide surgical excision
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Warts on the left hand for 2 months, no treatment yet. What is the best evidence-based treatment for warts?

A. Repeated topical salicylic acid.
B. Cryotherapy with liquid nitrogen.
C. Imiquimod cream
D. Oral antiviral medication
E. Surgical excision
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A 10-year-old boy presents to his GP with a chronic, intensely itchy rash affecting the flexural areas of his elbows and knees, as well as his neck. His parents report that he has had this condition on and off since infancy, with periods of remission and exacerbation. He also has a history of allergic rhinitis and asthma. On examination, the skin in the affected areas is dry, lichenified, and excoriated. There are also scattered papules and plaques. The patient reports significant sleep disturbance due to the itch. Topical corticosteroids have provided temporary relief in the past, but the rash flares up again soon after stopping treatment. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in managing this patient's atopic dermatitis?

A. Refer the patient to a dermatologist for systemic immunosuppressant therapy without attempting further topical treatments.
B. Initiate treatment with a topical calcineurin inhibitor such as tacrolimus or pimecrolimus.
C. Recommend oral antihistamines as the sole treatment for the itch.
D. Advise strict avoidance of all potential allergens based on unproven allergy testing.
E. Prescribe a potent topical corticosteroid for long-term daily use.
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A 45-year-old woman presents with a 3-month history of an intensely itchy rash on her wrists and ankles. On examination, you note violaceous, flat-topped papules. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Tinea corporis
B. Contact dermatitis
C. Psoriasis
D. Lichen planus
E. Atopic dermatitis
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Facial eosinophilic granuloma. Red-brown nodule on the nose. Clearly visible follicular structures ("peau d'orange").
Image by Sand, Michael, et al. CC BY 2.0 · Source

A 35-year-old male presents with a painless lesion on his nose that has been present for several months. He denies any trauma or recent illness. Examination reveals the image shown. What is the most appropriate initial management?

A. Topical corticosteroids
B. Topical retinoids
C. Excisional biopsy
D. Oral antibiotics
E. Cryotherapy
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Facial eosinophilic granuloma. Red-brown nodule on the nose. Clearly visible follicular structures ("peau d'orange").
Image by Sand, Michael, et al. CC BY 2.0 · Source

A 62-year-old man presents with a lesion on his nose that has been slowly enlarging over the past 8 months. He reports occasional tenderness but no bleeding. He has a significant history of outdoor work and multiple previous sunburns. His medical history is otherwise clear. On examination, vital signs are stable. The lesion appears as shown in the image. Regional lymph nodes are not palpable. Considering the clinical presentation and the appearance of the lesion, which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in the management of this patient?

A. Arrange for cryotherapy of the lesion.
B. Perform a punch biopsy of the lesion.
C. Refer immediately for wide local excision.
D. Apply topical imiquimod cream daily.
E. Schedule a follow-up appointment in 3 months to monitor for changes.
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Clinical aspects of mammary Paget's disease occurred on the thoracic wall where simple mastectomy was performed some years before.
Image by Monica Giovannini, Carmelo D'Atri, Quirino Piubello, Annamaria Molino CC BY-SA 2.0 · Source

A 68-year-old woman presents with a persistent, pruritic rash on her chest wall at the site of a previous mastectomy performed 8 years ago for invasive ductal carcinoma. She completed adjuvant chemotherapy and radiation. Examination reveals the area shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Initiation of systemic chemotherapy
B. Reassurance and observation
C. Referral for wide local excision
D. Skin biopsy of the affected area
E. Topical corticosteroid application
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Facial eosinophilic granuloma. Red-brown nodule on the nose. Clearly visible follicular structures ("peau d'orange").
Image by Sand, Michael, et al. CC BY 2.0 · Source

A 40-year-old man presents with a painless, slowly growing lesion on his nose for the past 8 months. He denies any trauma or previous skin conditions. Examination reveals the pictured lesion. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Cryotherapy
B. Observation with serial photography
C. Referral for Mohs micrographic surgery
D. Punch biopsy for histological diagnosis
E. Topical corticosteroid application
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Clinical aspects of mammary Paget's disease occurred on the thoracic wall where simple mastectomy was performed some years before.
Image by Monica Giovannini, Carmelo D'Atri, Quirino Piubello, Annamaria Molino CC BY-SA 2.0 · Source

A 72-year-old woman presents with a 6-month history of a non-healing rash on her chest wall at the site of a previous mastectomy performed 10 years prior for invasive ductal carcinoma. She completed adjuvant chemotherapy and radiation. Examination reveals the findings shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Skin biopsy of the affected area
B. Empiric antibiotic therapy
C. Reassurance and observation
D. Referral for wide local excision
E. Topical corticosteroid application
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of a new, intensely itchy rash on her elbows, knees, and scalp. On examination, the GP notes symmetrical, erythematous papules and plaques with overlying silvery scales. The patient reports a family history of similar skin conditions. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Contact Dermatitis
B. Tinea Corporis
C. Pityriasis Rosea
D. Eczema (Atopic Dermatitis)
E. Psoriasis
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A 22-year-old female presents with a strange tongue appearance after brushing her teeth, with no pain. She has a history of pustular psoriasis. What is the next step?

A. Reassure - no treatment needed.
B. Prescribe oral antifungal.
C. Daily AB mouthwash until the tongue is normal.
D. Biopsy of tongue lesion.
E. Refer to a dermatologist.
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Clinical aspects of mammary Paget's disease occurred on the thoracic wall where simple mastectomy was performed some years before.
Image by Monica Giovannini, Carmelo D'Atri, Quirino Piubello, Annamaria Molino CC BY-SA 2.0 · Source

A 70-year-old woman, post-mastectomy, presents with a chronic, pruritic lesion. What is the MOST likely underlying pathophysiology?

A. Contact dermatitis
B. Intraepithelial adenocarcinoma
C. Granulomatous inflammation
D. Dermal melanocytosis
E. Superficial fungal infection
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Clinical aspects of mammary Paget's disease occurred on the thoracic wall where simple mastectomy was performed some years before.
Image by Monica Giovannini, Carmelo D'Atri, Quirino Piubello, Annamaria Molino CC BY-SA 2.0 · Source

A 68-year-old woman presents with a persistent rash on her chest wall at the site of a previous mastectomy performed 8 years ago. She denies pain or itching. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Reassurance and observation
B. Topical corticosteroid application
C. Skin biopsy
D. Referral to dermatology for cryotherapy
E. Excisional biopsy with wide margins
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Clinical aspects of mammary Paget's disease occurred on the thoracic wall where simple mastectomy was performed some years before.
Image by Monica Giovannini, Carmelo D'Atri, Quirino Piubello, Annamaria Molino CC BY-SA 2.0 · Source

A 68-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 3-month history of a persistent, mildly pruritic skin lesion on her left chest wall. She had a left simple mastectomy for invasive ductal carcinoma 10 years ago, followed by adjuvant therapy. She denies fever, weight loss, or other systemic symptoms. Physical examination reveals the appearance shown. What is the most appropriate initial diagnostic investigation?

A. Prescribe a course of topical antifungal cream
B. Punch biopsy of the lesion
C. Order a PET-CT scan for staging
D. Arrange a follow-up appointment in 3 months to monitor the lesion
E. Perform a shave biopsy of the lesion
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Clinical aspects of mammary Paget's disease occurred on the thoracic wall where simple mastectomy was performed some years before.
Image by Monica Giovannini, Carmelo D'Atri, Quirino Piubello, Annamaria Molino CC BY-SA 2.0 · Source

A 70-year-old woman presents with a lesion on her chest wall at the site of a mastectomy performed 10 years prior. She reports it started as a small area of redness and has slowly enlarged. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

A. Eczema
B. Radiation dermatitis
C. Paget's disease of the breast
D. Invasive ductal carcinoma
E. Herpes zoster
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Facial eosinophilic granuloma. Red-brown nodule on the nose. Clearly visible follicular structures ("peau d'orange").
Image by Sand, Michael, et al. CC BY 2.0 · Source

A 40-year-old man presents with a solitary, asymptomatic nodule on his nose. Biopsy reveals perivascular eosinophilic infiltrate. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

A. Keratoacanthoma
B. Angiofibroma
C. Spitz nevus
D. Eosinophilic granuloma
E. Basal cell carcinoma
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A 6-month-old infant is brought to the general practitioner by his parents, who are concerned about a persistent, itchy rash. The rash initially appeared on his cheeks and scalp a few weeks ago and has now spread to his trunk and extensor surfaces of his arms and legs. The parents report that the infant is constantly scratching, which disrupts his sleep. He has no known allergies, and there is no family history of asthma or allergic rhinitis. On examination, the infant is alert and active. There are erythematous, papular lesions with areas of weeping and crusting on his cheeks, scalp, trunk, and extensor surfaces. The skin is dry and flaky in other areas. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial management strategy for this infant's condition?

A. Systemic corticosteroids
B. Referral to a dermatologist for allergy testing
C. Oral antihistamines and topical antibiotics
D. Emollients and topical corticosteroids
E. Elimination diet for the mother (if breastfeeding)
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner complaining of a persistent, intensely itchy rash that started a few weeks ago. She reports that it began on her wrists and ankles and has now spread to her elbows and knees. She denies any new medications, travel, or changes in personal care products. On examination, you observe symmetrical, excoriated papules and plaques on her wrists, elbows, knees, and upper back. Some of the papules have small blisters. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial investigation?

A. Patch testing with a standard allergen series
B. Potassium hydroxide (KOH) examination of skin scraping
C. Serum IgE level
D. Skin biopsy for direct immunofluorescence
E. Viral culture of blister fluid
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A 32-year-old woman, G1P1, presents to her general practitioner at 34 weeks gestation complaining of a new, intensely itchy rash. The rash started on her abdomen around the umbilicus and has now spread to her thighs and buttocks. On examination, there are erythematous papules and plaques, some with vesicles, located within the striae distensae of her abdomen. She denies any personal or family history of eczema or other skin conditions. She is otherwise well, with normal blood pressure and no proteinuria. Fetal movements are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?

A. Oral corticosteroids
B. Topical corticosteroids and emollients
C. Referral to a dermatologist for biopsy
D. Induction of labour
E. Oral antihistamines alone
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Facial eosinophilic granuloma. Red-brown nodule on the nose. Clearly visible follicular structures ("peau d'orange").
Image by Sand, Michael, et al. CC BY 2.0 · Source

A 35-year-old man presents with a painless lesion on his nose, present for 6 months. Examination reveals the image shown. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

A. Angioma
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Melanoma
D. Basal cell carcinoma
E. Eosinophilic granuloma
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A 65-year-old lady weighing 70 kg has an enlarging papule on her right neck, measuring 8 mm, raised with a keratotic horn. A keratinocytic tumor is suspected. What is the maximum safe dose of 1% lidocaine with adrenaline for local anesthesia in this patient?

A. 490 mg
B. e/ 1000 mg
C. 140 mg
D. 70 mg
E. 210 mg
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Facial eosinophilic granuloma. Red-brown nodule on the nose. Clearly visible follicular structures ("peau d'orange").
Image by Sand, Michael, et al. CC BY 2.0 · Source

A 35-year-old man presents to his general practitioner reporting a lesion on his nose that he first noticed approximately three months ago. He describes it as initially resembling a persistent pimple, but notes it has not resolved and appears to be slowly increasing in size. He denies any associated pain, itching, or bleeding from the site. His past medical history is unremarkable, and he is not currently taking any regular medications. He works outdoors in a role involving significant sun exposure but admits to inconsistent use of sun protection measures. On physical examination, his vital signs are within normal limits. The lesion in question is located on his nose and has the appearance shown in the accompanying image. No other suspicious skin lesions are identified elsewhere on his body, and regional lymph nodes are not palpable. Considering the clinical presentation and the appearance of the lesion depicted, what is the most appropriate initial step in the management of this patient?

A. Perform a punch biopsy of the lesion for histological examination.
B. Arrange an urgent ultrasound scan of the nose and regional lymph nodes to assess for depth and spread.
C. Prescribe a course of topical antibiotic cream and review in two weeks.
D. Advise the patient to monitor the lesion for further changes and return in three months if it persists or grows.
E. Initiate treatment with a high-potency topical corticosteroid cream twice daily.
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Facial eosinophilic granuloma. Red-brown nodule on the nose. Clearly visible follicular structures ("peau d'orange").
Image by Sand, Michael, et al. CC BY 2.0 · Source

A 35-year-old male presents to his general practitioner with a lesion on his nose that has been present for approximately 3 months. He initially thought it was a persistent pimple but it has not resolved and seems to be slowly growing. He denies pain, itching, or bleeding from the lesion. He has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medications. He works outdoors but reports using sunscreen inconsistently. On examination, vital signs are stable. The lesion is as shown in the image. There are no other skin lesions noted elsewhere. Regional lymph nodes are not palpable. Based on the appearance of the lesion shown, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Reassure the patient and arrange for review in 3 months.
B. Prescribe a course of topical corticosteroid cream.
C. Initiate a course of oral antibiotics.
D. Arrange for cryotherapy to the lesion.
E. Perform a biopsy of the lesion for histological examination.
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Facial eosinophilic granuloma. Red-brown nodule on the nose. Clearly visible follicular structures ("peau d'orange").
Image by Sand, Michael, et al. CC BY 2.0 · Source

A 55-year-old man presents to his GP with a lesion on his nose that he first noticed about 6 months ago. It has gradually increased in size but is not painful or itchy. He has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medications. On examination, vital signs are stable. The image shows the lesion. Based on the appearance of this lesion, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Advise observation and review in 6 months.
B. Perform an excisional biopsy for histological examination.
C. Refer urgently to a dermatologist for Mohs surgery.
D. Prescribe a course of topical antibiotic cream.
E. Arrange for cryotherapy in the clinic.
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Facial eosinophilic granuloma. Red-brown nodule on the nose. Clearly visible follicular structures ("peau d'orange").
Image by Sand, Michael, et al. CC BY 2.0 · Source

A 55-year-old man presents with a slowly growing lesion on his nose that he first noticed about 6 months ago. He reports occasional mild discomfort but no bleeding. He has a history of significant sun exposure due to his occupation. His medical history is otherwise unremarkable. On examination, vital signs are normal. The lesion appears as shown in the image. Regional lymph nodes are not enlarged. Considering the patient's history, risk factors, and the appearance of the lesion, what is the most appropriate initial step in the management of this patient?

A. Apply a high-potency topical corticosteroid cream
B. Excisional or incisional biopsy of the lesion
C. Observe the lesion for a further 3 months and review
D. Order a CT scan of the facial bones and sinuses
E. Refer directly to a plastic surgeon for cosmetic removal
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A patient has Bowen's disease on their trunk. Which exposure is a significant risk factor for Bowen's disease, especially in non-sun-exposed areas?

A. Smoking
B. Chronic UV radiation
C. HPV infection
D. Arsenic exposure
E. Immunosuppression
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Facial eosinophilic granuloma. Red-brown nodule on the nose. Clearly visible follicular structures ("peau d'orange").
Image by Sand, Michael, et al. CC BY 2.0 · Source

A 45-year-old man presents to his GP with a lesion on his nose that has been present for several months and seems to be slowly enlarging. He denies pain, itching, or bleeding. He works outdoors but reports using sunscreen inconsistently. His past medical history is unremarkable, and he takes no regular medications. On examination, vital signs are stable. Regional lymph nodes are not palpable. The lesion is as shown in the image. Considering the clinical presentation, risk factors, and the appearance of the lesion, which of the following represents the most appropriate initial step in establishing a definitive diagnosis and guiding management?

A. Referral for cryotherapy
B. Application of topical corticosteroid cream twice daily
C. Punch biopsy for bacterial culture and sensitivity
D. Excisional or incisional biopsy for histological examination
E. Reassurance and review in three months
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Facial eosinophilic granuloma. Red-brown nodule on the nose. Clearly visible follicular structures ("peau d'orange").
Image by Sand, Michael, et al. CC BY 2.0 · Source

A 55-year-old man presents to his GP with a persistent lesion on his nose that has been present for several months and has not changed significantly in size or appearance. He reports it is occasionally itchy but otherwise asymptomatic. His medical history is unremarkable, and vital signs are within normal limits. On examination, you observe the lesion shown in the image. Considering the appearance of this lesion, what is the most appropriate initial step in the management of this patient?

A. Perform a punch or shave biopsy of the lesion.
B. Advise watchful waiting and review in 6 months if it changes.
C. Prescribe a 7-day course of oral flucloxacillin.
D. Initiate treatment with topical hydrocortisone 1%.
E. Refer for Mohs micrographic surgery.
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner complaining of a persistent, intensely itchy rash on her elbows, knees, and scalp for the past 6 months. She reports that the itching is worse at night and after hot showers. She has tried over-the-counter hydrocortisone cream without relief. On examination, the GP notes symmetrical, excoriated papules and plaques on the extensor surfaces of her elbows and knees, as well as some scaling on her scalp. The patient also mentions a history of recurrent mouth ulcers. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial investigation to confirm the suspected diagnosis?

A. Skin biopsy for histopathology and direct immunofluorescence
B. Allergy testing (skin prick or RAST) for common environmental allergens
C. Full blood count (FBC) and liver function tests (LFTs)
D. Potassium hydroxide (KOH) examination of skin scrapings
E. IgA anti-endomysial antibody (EMA) and IgA tissue transglutaminase (tTG) antibody testing
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Right leg affected by warfarin necrosis
Image by Bakoyiannis C, Karaolanis G, Patelis N, Maskanakis A, Tsaples G, Klonaris C, Georgopoulos S, Liakakos T CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 68-year-old woman recently started on warfarin for a pulmonary embolism presents with a painful, rapidly expanding purpuric lesion on her thigh, which developed two days ago. Her INR is 2.5. She has no history of trauma to the area. Considering the clinical presentation and the appearance of the lesion, what is the most likely underlying pathophysiological process?

A. Allergic vasculitis secondary to warfarin
B. Protein C deficiency leading to paradoxical thrombosis
C. Vitamin K deficiency exacerbating bleeding
D. Direct toxic effect of warfarin on dermal capillaries
E. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia causing microthrombi
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Facial eosinophilic granuloma. Red-brown nodule on the nose. Clearly visible follicular structures ("peau d'orange").
Image by Sand, Michael, et al. CC BY 2.0 · Source

A 62-year-old man presents with a painless lesion on his nose, present for 8 months. He denies trauma or fever. Examination reveals the image shown. Histopathology is MOST likely to show which of the following?

A. Nodular basaloid cells with peripheral palisading
B. Granulomatous inflammation with eosinophils
C. Keratin pearls and intercellular bridges
D. Atypical melanocytes with pagetoid spread
E. Spindle cells arranged in a storiform pattern
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Inguinal hernia right view. Adult male with an inguinal hernia, showing bulging in the groin area.
Image by IkeTheSloth CC0 1.0 · Source

A 45-year-old man presents with the finding shown. He denies pain but is concerned about its appearance. What is the MOST appropriate initial step?

A. Surgical referral for elective repair
B. Referral for physiotherapy
C. Reassurance and observation
D. Prescription for a scrotal support
E. CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis
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Facial eosinophilic granuloma. Red-brown nodule on the nose. Clearly visible follicular structures ("peau d'orange").
Image by Sand, Michael, et al. CC BY 2.0 · Source

A 50-year-old man presents with a slowly growing, asymptomatic nasal lesion. He reports no trauma or fever. Examination reveals the image shown. What is the MOST likely long-term outcome if left untreated?

A. Transformation to squamous cell carcinoma
B. Local tissue destruction
C. Metastatic spread
D. Spontaneous resolution
E. Development of systemic lupus erythematosus
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Facial eosinophilic granuloma. Red-brown nodule on the nose. Clearly visible follicular structures ("peau d'orange").
Image by Sand, Michael, et al. CC BY 2.0 · Source

A 40-year-old patient presents with a persistent, slightly raised lesion on their nose that has been present for several months. It is asymptomatic except for occasional mild itching. There is no history of trauma or recent changes in size or colour. The patient is otherwise healthy. Considering the appearance of the lesion shown and the clinical presentation, which of the following represents the most appropriate initial approach?

A. Reassure the patient that it is likely benign and requires no further action.
B. Obtain a biopsy of the lesion for histological examination.
C. Prescribe a course of topical antibiotic cream.
D. Advise the patient to apply over-the-counter hydrocortisone cream.
E. Arrange urgent referral to a plastic surgeon for wide local excision.
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Facial eosinophilic granuloma. Red-brown nodule on the nose. Clearly visible follicular structures ("peau d'orange").
Image by Sand, Michael, et al. CC BY 2.0 · Source

A 55-year-old man presents to his GP with a lesion on his nose that has been slowly enlarging over the past 4 months. He reports no associated pain, itching, or bleeding. He is otherwise well, with no significant past medical history. On examination, vital signs are within normal limits. The lesion is as shown in the image. Considering the clinical presentation and the appearance of the lesion, what is the most appropriate initial step in the management of this patient?

A. Refer the patient directly for Mohs micrographic surgery.
B. Arrange for cryotherapy to the lesion.
C. Prescribe a course of oral antibiotics.
D. Excisional or incisional biopsy of the lesion.
E. Prescribe a high-potency topical corticosteroid cream.
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Facial eosinophilic granuloma. Red-brown nodule on the nose. Clearly visible follicular structures ("peau d'orange").
Image by Sand, Michael, et al. CC BY 2.0 · Source

A 50-year-old man presents with a slowly growing nasal lesion. Examination reveals the image shown. What is the MOST appropriate initial management?

A. Excisional biopsy
B. Topical corticosteroids
C. Observation
D. Imiquimod cream
E. Cryotherapy
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Facial eosinophilic granuloma. Red-brown nodule on the nose. Clearly visible follicular structures ("peau d'orange").
Image by Sand, Michael, et al. CC BY 2.0 · Source

A 35-year-old male presents with a painless lesion on his nose that has been present for several months. He denies any trauma or previous skin conditions. Examination reveals the image shown. What is the MOST appropriate initial management step?

A. Topical antifungal cream
B. Topical corticosteroid application
C. Biopsy of the lesion
D. Cryotherapy
E. Observation with regular follow-up
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Clinical aspects of mammary Paget's disease occurred on the thoracic wall where simple mastectomy was performed some years before.
Image by Monica Giovannini, Carmelo D'Atri, Quirino Piubello, Annamaria Molino CC BY-SA 2.0 · Source

A 68-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a persistent, pruritic rash on her chest wall. She reports a history of left mastectomy for invasive ductal carcinoma 8 years ago, followed by adjuvant chemotherapy and radiation therapy. She denies any recent trauma or changes in soaps or detergents. Physical examination reveals the findings shown. A punch biopsy is performed. Which of the following immunohistochemical stains would most likely be positive in this patient's biopsy sample, supporting the suspected diagnosis?

A. Vimentin
B. Cytokeratin 7 (CK7)
C. Smooth muscle actin (SMA)
D. S-100
E. Human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2)
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Facial eosinophilic granuloma. Red-brown nodule on the nose. Clearly visible follicular structures ("peau d'orange").
Image by Sand, Michael, et al. CC BY 2.0 · Source

A 45-year-old male presents with a painless lesion on his nose that has been present for 6 months. He denies any trauma or previous skin conditions. Examination reveals the lesion seen in the image. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Referral for Mohs micrographic surgery
B. Topical corticosteroid application
C. Observation with serial photography
D. Biopsy for histopathological examination
E. Cryotherapy
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Facial eosinophilic granuloma. Red-brown nodule on the nose. Clearly visible follicular structures ("peau d'orange").
Image by Sand, Michael, et al. CC BY 2.0 · Source

A 45-year-old male presents with a painless lesion on his nose that has been present for several months. He denies any trauma or recent illness. Examination reveals the image shown. What is the MOST appropriate initial management?

A. Observation with serial photography
B. Topical antifungal cream
C. Topical corticosteroid application
D. Biopsy for histopathological examination
E. Cryotherapy
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Clinical aspects of mammary Paget's disease occurred on the thoracic wall where simple mastectomy was performed some years before.
Image by Monica Giovannini, Carmelo D'Atri, Quirino Piubello, Annamaria Molino CC BY-SA 2.0 · Source

A 68-year-old woman presents with a persistent, pruritic rash on her chest wall at the site of a previous mastectomy performed 8 years ago for invasive ductal carcinoma. She completed adjuvant chemotherapy and radiation at that time. Examination reveals the area shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Topical corticosteroid application
B. Referral for excisional re-resection
C. Mammogram of the contralateral breast
D. Empiric antifungal treatment
E. Skin biopsy of the affected area
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Clinical aspects of mammary Paget's disease occurred on the thoracic wall where simple mastectomy was performed some years before.
Image by Monica Giovannini, Carmelo D'Atri, Quirino Piubello, Annamaria Molino CC BY-SA 2.0 · Source

A 68-year-old woman presents with a persistent rash following a mastectomy 5 years prior. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Skin biopsy
B. Reassurance and observation
C. Topical corticosteroids
D. Mammogram of the contralateral breast
E. Excisional biopsy with wide margins
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Facial eosinophilic granuloma. Red-brown nodule on the nose. Clearly visible follicular structures ("peau d'orange").
Image by Sand, Michael, et al. CC BY 2.0 · Source

A 45-year-old man presents to his GP with a lesion on his nose that he first noticed about 6 months ago. It has slowly increased in size but is not painful or itchy. He has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medications. On examination, vital signs are stable. The image shows the appearance of the lesion. Considering the clinical presentation and the appearance of the lesion shown, what is the most appropriate initial management step?

A. Reassure the patient and review in 3 months.
B. Excisional biopsy for histological assessment.
C. Prescribe a course of topical corticosteroid cream.
D. Refer immediately for Mohs micrographic surgery.
E. Arrange for cryotherapy in the clinic.
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Right leg affected by warfarin necrosis
Image by Bakoyiannis C, Karaolanis G, Patelis N, Maskanakis A, Tsaples G, Klonaris C, Georgopoulos S, Liakakos T CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 68-year-old patient on warfarin for a recent DVT presents with a painful, rapidly expanding skin lesion on their leg that started 48 hours ago. Their INR is 2.9. Given the clinical context and the appearance of the lesion, what is the most appropriate immediate management step?

A. Increase the warfarin dose and monitor INR closely.
B. Switch warfarin to a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC).
C. Obtain a skin biopsy and continue current management.
D. Apply topical antibiotics and continue warfarin.
E. Stop warfarin, administer Vitamin K, and initiate heparin.
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner complaining of a persistent, intensely itchy rash that started a few weeks ago. She reports that it began on her wrists and ankles and has now spread to her elbows and knees. She denies any new medications, travel, or changes in personal care products. On examination, you observe symmetrical, intensely pruritic, violaceous, flat-topped papules and plaques on her wrists, ankles, and shins. Some of the lesions show fine, white lines on the surface. There are also a few small, similar lesions on her buccal mucosa. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?

A. Systemic corticosteroids and antifungal cream
B. Topical corticosteroids and antihistamines
C. Oral antibiotics and topical emollients
D. Referral to a rheumatologist for autoimmune workup
E. Cryotherapy to the affected areas
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Clinical aspects of mammary Paget's disease occurred on the thoracic wall where simple mastectomy was performed some years before.
Image by Monica Giovannini, Carmelo D'Atri, Quirino Piubello, Annamaria Molino CC BY-SA 2.0 · Source

A 72-year-old woman presents with a 6-month history of a non-healing rash on her chest wall at the site of a previous mastectomy performed 10 years prior for invasive ductal carcinoma. She has completed adjuvant chemotherapy and radiation. Examination reveals the findings shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Skin biopsy of the affected area
B. Topical corticosteroid application
C. Referral for wide local excision
D. Empiric antibiotic therapy
E. Fungal culture of the lesion
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A 55-year-old lady presents with a painless, white, lacy pattern on her buccal mucosa that has been present for several weeks. She feels well and has no significant medical history. What is the likely diagnosis?

A. Oral lichen planus
B. Leukoplakia
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Oral candidiasis
E. Erythroplakia
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29-year-old lady with postpartum hair loss, sparse hair, positive pull test, and normal scalp. Diagnosis?

A. Hypothyroidism
B. Alopecia areata
C. Tinea capitis
D. Telogen effluvium
E. Androgenic alopecia
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