← Back to Topics

fever

Practice targeted AMC-style multiple-choice questions on fever.

Related Topics

A 3-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents due to a high fever and irritability. He has had a runny nose and cough for the past two days. On examination, he is lethargic and has a bulging fontanelle. A lumbar puncture is performed, and the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis shows elevated protein, low glucose, and a high white cell count with a predominance of neutrophils. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Tuberculous meningitis
B. Bacterial meningitis
C. Subdural hematoma
D. Viral meningitis
E. Encephalitis
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question

A 32-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of fever, chills, and right flank pain. She has a history of recurrent urinary tract infections. On examination, she is febrile with a temperature of 38.5°C, her heart rate is 110 bpm, and her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg. There is tenderness on palpation of the right costovertebral angle. Urinalysis shows pyuria and bacteriuria. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

A. Intravenous fluids only
B. Observation and repeat urinalysis
C. Pain management with NSAIDs
D. Intravenous antibiotics
E. Oral antibiotics
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question

A 10-year-old presents with a sore throat, fever, and fatigue for 2 days. Examination reveals tonsillar exudates and tender anterior cervical lymph nodes. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Advise symptomatic treatment with paracetamol
B. Refer to an ENT specialist
C. Perform a rapid strep test
D. Order a throat culture
E. Prescribe oral amoxicillin
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question
Diverticulitis in the left lower quadrant. There is outpouching of the colonic wall, wall thickening, and surrounding fat stranding.
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 62-year-old male presents with left lower quadrant pain, fever, and leukocytosis. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed, the axial view is shown. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Order a barium enema to assess for fistula
B. Prescribe oral antibiotics and a high-fiber diet
C. Perform a colonoscopy to rule out malignancy
D. Schedule elective sigmoid colectomy
E. Initiate intravenous antibiotics and bowel rest
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question
Post-embolization arteriogram showing coiled aneurysm (indicated by yellow arrows) of the posteriorcerebral artery with a residual aneurysmal sac.
Image by Promod Pillai, Aftab Karim, Anil Nanda CC BY 2.0 · Source

A 68-year-old woman with a history of hypertension presents with a severe headache and altered mental status. Aneurysmal coiling was performed. The image shows a post-operative angiogram. 6 hours later, she develops a fever of 38.5°C and worsening confusion. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A. Obtain blood cultures and start broad-spectrum antibiotics
B. Increase the dose of her antihypertensive medication
C. Repeat CT angiogram of the head
D. Initiate nimodipine
E. Administer intravenous mannitol
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question

A 70-year-old woman with a history of diabetes presents with fever, cough, and weight loss. A chest X-ray shows a cavitary lesion in the right upper lobe. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Sarcoidosis
B. Lung cancer
C. Tuberculosis
D. Lung abscess
E. Pneumocystis pneumonia
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question
Figure 3 of paper: Alveolar echinococcosis in a patient with immunosuppression.

(a) Abdominal gray-scale US shows an abscess-like hepatic image.
(b) Axial unenhanced CT shows a typical aspect of pyogenic liver abscess.
Image by Wenya Liu, Éric Delabrousse, Oleg Blagosklonov, Jing Wang, Hongchun Zeng, Yi Jiang, Jian Wang, Yongde Qin, Dominique Angèle Vuitton, Hao Wen CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 55-year-old patient with a history of solid organ transplant on immunosuppressive therapy presents with a two-week history of intermittent fever, chills, and dull right upper quadrant pain. On examination, there is mild tenderness in the right upper quadrant. Blood tests reveal a white cell count of 14 x 10^9/L and CRP of 120 mg/L. Imaging is performed. Considering the clinical context and the provided images, what is the most appropriate immediate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Arrange for repeat cross-sectional imaging in 4-6 weeks to assess for interval change
B. Schedule surgical exploration and debridement of the lesion
C. Order serological tests for common parasitic infections, including Echinococcus species
D. Percutaneous aspiration and drainage of the lesion for microbiological and pathological analysis
E. Initiate empirical broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics covering typical bacterial pathogens
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question

A 25-year-old gentleman presents with 3 days of rhinorrhea, fever, cough, and abdominal pain. On examination, his temperature is 39.6°C, he has reduced breath sounds, and an enlarged spleen. Which of the following causative pathogens, if identified, would require mandatory notification in Australia?

A. Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)
B. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
C. Adenovirus
D. Chlamydia psittaci
E. Parainfluenzae
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question
Figure 3 of paper: Alveolar echinococcosis in a patient with immunosuppression.

(a) Abdominal gray-scale US shows an abscess-like hepatic image.
(b) Axial unenhanced CT shows a typical aspect of pyogenic liver abscess.
Image by Wenya Liu, Éric Delabrousse, Oleg Blagosklonov, Jing Wang, Hongchun Zeng, Yi Jiang, Jian Wang, Yongde Qin, Dominique Angèle Vuitton, Hao Wen CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 55-year-old man with a history of renal transplant on immunosuppression presents with a 2-week history of low-grade fever, malaise, and dull right upper quadrant discomfort. Physical examination is unremarkable except for mild tenderness on deep palpation of the right upper quadrant. Blood tests show a mild leucocytosis and elevated CRP. Imaging is performed. Based on the clinical presentation and imaging findings, what is the most appropriate next diagnostic step?

A. Schedule surgical exploration and drainage
B. Percutaneous aspiration and microbiological analysis of the lesion
C. Order Echinococcus serology
D. Initiate broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics
E. Repeat CT scan with intravenous contrast in 48 hours
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question
Figure 3 of paper: Alveolar echinococcosis in a patient with immunosuppression.

(a) Abdominal gray-scale US shows an abscess-like hepatic image.
(b) Axial unenhanced CT shows a typical aspect of pyogenic liver abscess.
Image by Wenya Liu, Éric Delabrousse, Oleg Blagosklonov, Jing Wang, Hongchun Zeng, Yi Jiang, Jian Wang, Yongde Qin, Dominique Angèle Vuitton, Hao Wen CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 62-year-old male with a history of poorly controlled diabetes presents with right upper quadrant pain, fever, and night sweats for 3 weeks. He is on immunosuppressants following a renal transplant 5 years ago. Blood cultures are pending. Imaging is performed, as shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Percutaneous drainage and antibiotics
B. Observation and serial imaging
C. Metronidazole and supportive care
D. Empiric amphotericin B
E. Albendazole and surgical resection
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question
Acute cholecystitis with gallbladder wall thickening, a large gallstone, and a large gallbladder
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 65-year-old male presents to the emergency department with 2 days of constant right upper quadrant pain radiating to the back, associated with nausea and subjective fever. On examination, he is febrile (38.5°C) with significant tenderness and a positive Murphy's sign in the right upper quadrant. His white cell count is elevated at 15 x 10^9/L, and CRP is 120 mg/L. Liver function tests are within normal limits. Considering the clinical findings and the provided imaging, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy within 24-72 hours
B. Urgent endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)
C. Percutaneous cholecystostomy insertion
D. Repeat abdominal CT scan in 24 hours
E. Continue medical management with intravenous antibiotics and analgesia only
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question

A 45-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe right upper quadrant abdominal pain that started suddenly 3 hours ago. She describes the pain as sharp and radiating to her right shoulder. She has a history of gallstones but has never had surgery. On examination, she is febrile with a temperature of 38.5°C, her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, and her heart rate is 100 bpm. She has tenderness in the right upper quadrant with a positive Murphy's sign. Laboratory tests reveal leukocytosis and mildly elevated liver enzymes. An abdominal ultrasound shows gallstones and a thickened gallbladder wall with pericholecystic fluid. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Immediate endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)
B. Discharge with outpatient follow-up for elective cholecystectomy
C. Intravenous antibiotics and surgical consultation for cholecystectomy
D. Observation and pain management with oral analgesics
E. Percutaneous cholecystostomy
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question

A 78M presents with cough, fever, confusion. BP 90/60, RR 30, Temp 38.5, SpO2 90% on air. CXR shows LUL consolidation. What is the most appropriate initial management?

A. Arrange urgent viral PCR testing
B. Initiate oral antibiotics and admit to general ward
C. Discharge home with oral antibiotics
D. Perform urgent bronchoscopy
E. Initiate IV antibiotics and assess for ICU admission
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question

An 82-year-old woman from an aged care facility presents with a 2-day history of increased confusion and lethargy. Her baseline is independent living with mild cognitive impairment. She has a chronic cough but no recent change in sputum. Vital signs: T 37.8°C, HR 95 bpm, BP 110/70 mmHg, RR 22 breaths/min, SpO2 92% on room air. Chest examination reveals decreased breath sounds at the right base. Given the clinical presentation and setting, which of the following is the most appropriate initial management step while awaiting the chest X-ray result?

A. Perform a CT scan of the chest to confirm the diagnosis.
B. Administer empiric broad-spectrum antibiotics covering typical and atypical pathogens.
C. Transfer to a tertiary hospital for specialist respiratory review.
D. Administer supplemental oxygen and monitor vital signs closely.
E. Obtain sputum culture and sensitivity before initiating antibiotics.
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question
Figure 3 of paper: Alveolar echinococcosis in a patient with immunosuppression.

(a) Abdominal gray-scale US shows an abscess-like hepatic image.
(b) Axial unenhanced CT shows a typical aspect of pyogenic liver abscess.
Image by Wenya Liu, Éric Delabrousse, Oleg Blagosklonov, Jing Wang, Hongchun Zeng, Yi Jiang, Jian Wang, Yongde Qin, Dominique Angèle Vuitton, Hao Wen CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 62-year-old man, post-renal transplant, presents with RUQ pain and fever. Imaging is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Metronidazole
B. Amphotericin B
C. Observation and serial imaging
D. Percutaneous drainage and antibiotics
E. Albendazole and surgical resection
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question
Diverticulitis in the left lower quadrant. There is outpouching of the colonic wall, wall thickening, and surrounding fat stranding.
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 55-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of left lower quadrant abdominal pain, associated with a low-grade fever (38.1°C) and mild nausea. He denies vomiting, diarrhoea, or rectal bleeding. On examination, he has localised tenderness in the left iliac fossa. His vital signs are stable: BP 130/80 mmHg, HR 78 bpm, RR 16/min, SpO2 98% on air. Blood tests show a white cell count of 12.5 x 10^9/L and CRP 45 mg/L. An abdominal CT scan is performed (image provided). Based on the clinical presentation and the provided image, what is the most appropriate setting for this patient's initial management?

A. Inpatient admission for intravenous antibiotics and observation.
B. Outpatient management with oral antibiotics and analgesia.
C. Admission for bowel rest and total parenteral nutrition.
D. Urgent surgical consultation for potential intervention.
E. Discharge home with only analgesia and dietary advice.
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question
Fluoroscopic image of common bile duct stone seen at the time of ERCP. The stone is impacted in the distal common bile duct.
Image by Samir धर्म at en.wikipedia CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 68-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with right upper quadrant abdominal pain, fever, and jaundice. Her vital signs are: temperature 38.5°C, heart rate 110 bpm, blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, respiratory rate 20 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation 97% on room air. Initial laboratory investigations reveal: white blood cell count 14,000/µL, total bilirubin 6.0 mg/dL, alkaline phosphatase 450 U/L, ALT 300 U/L, and AST 250 U/L. An ERCP is performed, and the image is obtained. Following successful intervention, what is the MOST appropriate next step in managing this patient's condition?

A. Continue intravenous antibiotics and perform a percutaneous cholecystostomy tube placement.
B. Observe the patient without antibiotics and schedule an outpatient laparoscopic cholecystectomy in 6-8 weeks.
C. Administer intravenous antibiotics and schedule a laparoscopic cholecystectomy during the same admission.
D. Discharge the patient home with oral antibiotics and schedule an outpatient laparoscopic cholecystectomy.
E. Perform an open cholecystectomy during the same admission.
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question
Figure 3 of paper: Alveolar echinococcosis in a patient with immunosuppression.

(a) Abdominal gray-scale US shows an abscess-like hepatic image.
(b) Axial unenhanced CT shows a typical aspect of pyogenic liver abscess.
Image by Wenya Liu, Éric Delabrousse, Oleg Blagosklonov, Jing Wang, Hongchun Zeng, Yi Jiang, Jian Wang, Yongde Qin, Dominique Angèle Vuitton, Hao Wen CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 55-year-old patient with a history of solid organ transplant on immunosuppressive therapy presents with a 2-week history of low-grade fever, malaise, and dull right upper quadrant discomfort. Physical examination is unremarkable except for mild tenderness in the right upper quadrant. Blood tests reveal a CRP of 85 mg/L (normal <5), WCC 11.5 x 10^9/L (normal 4-11), and mildly elevated alkaline phosphatase. Imaging is performed as shown. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Schedule for surgical resection of the lesion
B. Prescribe oral analgesia and monitor symptoms
C. Image-guided percutaneous aspiration or biopsy of the lesion
D. Repeat imaging with contrast-enhanced CT in 1 week
E. Initiate broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question
Diverticular disease
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 68-year-old male presents with a 2-day history of worsening left lower quadrant abdominal pain, fever (38.5°C), and nausea. He has a history of similar, milder pain episodes. Examination reveals left iliac fossa tenderness with guarding. Bloods show WCC 16, CRP 120. A CT scan is performed (image provided). Considering the clinical picture and the imaging findings, which of the following represents the most appropriate initial management strategy?

A. Administer intravenous fluids and analgesia, and observe in the emergency department for 12 hours.
B. Initiate intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics and admit for inpatient care.
C. Arrange urgent surgical review for consideration of immediate operative intervention.
D. Prescribe oral antibiotics and arrange follow-up with his general practitioner.
E. Schedule an urgent colonoscopy to evaluate the severity and rule out malignancy.
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question

A 55-year-old farmer presents with a week of severe retro-orbital headache, fever, and myalgia. He reports recent exposure to birthing sheep on his property. On examination, he is febrile (39.5°C) and mildly jaundiced. Liver enzymes are elevated (ALT 250 U/L). Chest X-ray is clear. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Leptospirosis
B. Viral hepatitis A
C. Influenza
D. Brucellosis
E. Q fever
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question

A 10-year-old presents with a sore throat, fever, and tonsillar exudates. Rapid strep test is negative. What is the most appropriate next step?

A. Throat culture
B. Start antibiotics
C. Refer to ENT
D. Prescribe analgesics and advise on symptomatic treatment
E. Order a monospot test
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question
Neuroblastoma, CT of the abdomen
Image by RadsWiki CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 4-year-old child is brought to the emergency department with a 3-week history of increasing abdominal distension, intermittent pain, and decreased activity. Parents also report occasional flushing episodes and unexplained fevers. On examination, a large, firm, irregular mass is palpable in the upper abdomen, extending across the midline. Vital signs are stable, and routine blood tests, including full blood count, electrolytes, and liver function tests, are within normal limits. An abdominal CT scan is performed (image provided). Based on the findings demonstrated in the image and the clinical presentation, which of the following investigations is most critical for accurate staging and risk stratification in this likely diagnosis?

A. Serum alpha-fetoprotein and beta-human chorionic gonadotropin levels
B. Upper gastrointestinal series with small bowel follow-through
C. Iodine-123 metaiodobenzylguanidine (MIBG) scan
D. Renal biopsy
E. Colonoscopy
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question
Acute cholecystitis with gallbladder wall thickening, a large gallstone, and a large gallbladder
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 45-year-old woman presents to the ED with right upper quadrant pain, fever, and nausea for 24 hours. Her vital signs are: HR 105 bpm, BP 130/80 mmHg, Temp 38.5°C. Physical exam reveals marked tenderness on palpation of the right upper quadrant. An abdominal CT scan is performed, as shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Initiate broad-spectrum antibiotics and observe
B. Discharge with analgesics and outpatient follow-up
C. ERCP to rule out choledocholithiasis
D. Surgical consultation for cholecystectomy
E. Start ursodeoxycholic acid for gallstone dissolution
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question

An 82-year-old man is brought from an aged care facility with a 2-day history of increased confusion and a new cough. He has a history of dementia and hypertension. On examination, his temperature is 38.1°C, pulse 98 bpm, BP 130/80 mmHg, and oxygen saturation 92% on room air. Chest auscultation reveals crackles in the right lower lung field. What is the most appropriate initial investigation?

A. Blood cultures
B. Sputum culture
C. ECG
D. Chest X-ray
E. CT scan of the head
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question
Diverticular disease
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 65-year-old presents with 2 days of left lower quadrant pain, fever (38.5°C), and nausea. On examination, there is localised tenderness in the LLQ. Vitals: BP 130/80, HR 90, RR 16, SpO2 98%. CRP is 150 mg/L, WCC 18 x 10^9/L. This image is obtained as part of the workup. Based on the clinical presentation and imaging findings, what is the most appropriate initial management step?

A. Admission for intravenous antibiotics and observation.
B. Outpatient oral antibiotics and pain relief.
C. Elective colonoscopy in 6-8 weeks.
D. Percutaneous drainage of any fluid collection.
E. Urgent surgical consultation for laparotomy.
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question
Acute cholecystitis with gallbladder wall thickening, a large gallstone, and a large gallbladder
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 45-year-old woman presents to the ED with right upper quadrant pain, fever, and nausea for 24 hours. Her vital signs are: HR 110, BP 130/80, Temp 38.5°C. An abdominal CT scan is performed (image attached). What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Surgical consultation for cholecystectomy
B. HIDA scan to confirm diagnosis
C. Start intravenous antibiotics and observe
D. ERCP for possible choledocholithiasis
E. Discharge home with oral antibiotics and analgesics
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question
Acute cholecystitis with gallbladder wall thickening, a large gallstone, and a large gallbladder
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 52-year-old female presents with right upper quadrant pain, fever, and leukocytosis. The image shows the likely cause. What is the MOST appropriate initial management?

A. Ursodeoxycholic acid
B. Oral antibiotics and outpatient follow-up
C. IV fluids, analgesia, and surgical consultation
D. Hepatobiliary iminodiacetic acid (HIDA) scan
E. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question

A 56-year-old gentleman, a gardener and cat owner, presents with 24 hours of pain, swelling, and redness on his right index finger. His temperature is 38.1°C and pulse is 72. Suspected gout. What is the most appropriate next step?

A. Aspirate joint for microscopy and culture.
B. Urgent hospital referral for drainage and IV antibiotics.
C. Prescribe oral antibiotics and review in 24 hours.
D. Start diclofenac TDS and discuss allopurinol.
E. Order serum uric acid level.
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question

A 30-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe right lower quadrant abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. The pain started around the umbilicus and then localized to the right lower quadrant. On examination, he has tenderness and guarding in the right lower quadrant. His temperature is 38.3°C, heart rate is 100 bpm, and blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Diverticulitis
B. Acute appendicitis
C. Acute cholecystitis
D. Renal colic
E. Gastroenteritis
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question

A 45-year-old farmer presents with a 10-day history of fever, severe retro-orbital headache, and myalgia. He denies cough or dyspnoea. Physical examination is unremarkable. What is the most appropriate initial investigation?

A. Liver function tests
B. Serology for Coxiella burnetii
C. Chest X-ray
D. Blood culture
E. PCR for Coxiella burnetii
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question

A 28-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 3-day history of fever, sore throat, and difficulty swallowing. She has no significant past medical history and is not on any medications. On examination, she has swollen, tender anterior cervical lymph nodes and erythematous tonsils with white exudates. A rapid antigen detection test for group A Streptococcus is positive. What is the most appropriate treatment for her condition?

A. Azithromycin
B. Clindamycin
C. Penicillin V
D. Ceftriaxone
E. Amoxicillin
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question
Diverticulitis in the left lower quadrant. There is outpouching of the colonic wall, wall thickening, and surrounding fat stranding.
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 55-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of left lower quadrant abdominal pain, associated with a low-grade fever (38.1°C) and mild nausea. He denies vomiting, diarrhoea, or rectal bleeding. On examination, he has localised tenderness in the left iliac fossa. His vital signs are stable: BP 130/80 mmHg, HR 78 bpm, RR 16/min, SpO2 98% on air. Blood tests show a white cell count of 12.5 x 10^9/L and CRP 45 mg/L. An abdominal CT scan is performed (image provided). Based on the clinical presentation and the provided image, what is the most appropriate initial management plan?

A. Intravenous antibiotics and hospital admission for observation.
B. Urgent surgical consultation for Hartmann's procedure.
C. Immediate colonoscopy to evaluate the colonic mucosa.
D. Discharge with advice on dietary modification and follow-up in 6 weeks.
E. Outpatient oral antibiotics and analgesia.
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question
Diverticular disease
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 65-year-old presents with 2 days of left lower quadrant pain, fever (38.5°C), and nausea. On examination, there is localised tenderness in the LLQ. Vitals: BP 130/80, HR 90, RR 16, SpO2 98%. CRP is 150 mg/L, WCC 18 x 10^9/L. This image is obtained as part of the workup. Considering the clinical context and the findings on the image, which of the following represents the most appropriate initial management strategy?

A. Colonoscopy to assess the severity
B. Inpatient management with intravenous antibiotics
C. Percutaneous drainage of the collection
D. Urgent surgical consultation for laparotomy
E. Outpatient oral antibiotics and clear fluid diet
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question
Diverticular disease
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 62-year-old male presents with acute onset of LLQ pain, fever, and vomiting. His WBC count is elevated. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed. Based on the image, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Flexible sigmoidoscopy
B. IV antibiotics and bowel rest
C. Stool softeners
D. Surgical resection
E. High-fiber diet
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question
Diverticular disease
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 68-year-old male presents to the ED with left lower quadrant abdominal pain, fever, and leukocytosis. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed. Based on the image, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Order a barium enema
B. Initiate intravenous antibiotics and bowel rest
C. Schedule elective colonoscopy
D. Proceed with immediate surgical resection
E. Perform flexible sigmoidoscopy
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question
Figure 3 of paper: Alveolar echinococcosis in a patient with immunosuppression.

(a) Abdominal gray-scale US shows an abscess-like hepatic image.
(b) Axial unenhanced CT shows a typical aspect of pyogenic liver abscess.
Image by Wenya Liu, Éric Delabrousse, Oleg Blagosklonov, Jing Wang, Hongchun Zeng, Yi Jiang, Jian Wang, Yongde Qin, Dominique Angèle Vuitton, Hao Wen CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 60-year-old man, post-chemotherapy, presents with fever and abdominal pain. The images are shown. What is the MOST appropriate initial therapy?

A. Surgical resection
B. Amphotericin B
C. Albendazole
D. Broad-spectrum antibiotics
E. Percutaneous drainage
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question
Diverticular disease
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 68-year-old male presents to the ED with left lower quadrant abdominal pain, fever, and leukocytosis. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed. Based on the imaging, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Flexible sigmoidoscopy to rule out malignancy
B. Stool culture to identify infectious etiology
C. Surgical resection of the affected bowel segment
D. IV antibiotics and bowel rest
E. High-fiber diet and increased fluid intake
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question

A 35-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 3-month history of fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats. He also reports a persistent cough that has recently become productive of blood-streaked sputum. He has no significant past medical history and is not on any medications. He recently returned from a trip to Southeast Asia. On examination, he is febrile and has bilateral crackles in the upper lung fields. A chest X-ray shows cavitary lesions in the upper lobes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Community-acquired pneumonia
B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
C. Lung cancer
D. Sarcoidosis
E. Pulmonary tuberculosis
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question
Acute cholecystitis with gallbladder wall thickening, a large gallstone, and a large gallbladder
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 65-year-old male presents with 2 days of constant right upper quadrant pain radiating to the back, associated with nausea and subjective fever. On examination, he is febrile (38.5°C) with significant tenderness and a positive Murphy's sign in the right upper quadrant. His white cell count is elevated at 15 x 10^9/L, and CRP is 120 mg/L. Liver function tests are within normal limits. Considering the clinical presentation and the provided imaging, what is the most appropriate timing for definitive surgical management?

A. Within 72 hours of admission
B. Only if symptoms fail to resolve with antibiotics
C. Following a trial of percutaneous drainage
D. Urgently, within 6 hours
E. After 6-8 weeks of medical management
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question
Diverticular disease
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 68-year-old male presents to the ED with left lower quadrant abdominal pain, fever, and leukocytosis. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed. Based on the image, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Increase dietary fiber intake
B. Surgical resection of the affected bowel segment
C. Flexible sigmoidoscopy
D. IV antibiotics and bowel rest
E. Stool culture for C. difficile
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question

A 75-year-old man with type 2 diabetes and chronic kidney disease presents with a 3-day history of productive cough, fever, and pleuritic chest pain. On examination, temperature is 38.2°C, HR 105, BP 130/80, RR 22, SpO2 93% on air. Crackles are heard over the right lower lung field. Which initial investigation is most crucial for guiding management?

A. Arterial blood gas
B. Blood cultures
C. Full blood count and C-reactive protein
D. Sputum culture and sensitivity
E. Chest X-ray
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question

A 45-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of fever, productive cough with greenish sputum, and pleuritic chest pain. She has a history of asthma and is currently on salbutamol and fluticasone inhalers. On examination, her temperature is 38.5°C, respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation is 92% on room air. Auscultation reveals decreased breath sounds and crackles in the right lower lung field. A chest X-ray shows a right lower lobe consolidation. What is the most appropriate initial antibiotic therapy for this patient, considering Australian guidelines?

A. Doxycycline
B. Ceftriaxone
C. Amoxicillin-clavulanate
D. Azithromycin
E. Ciprofloxacin
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question

A 58-year-old farmer presents with a 10-day history of fever, severe retro-orbital headache, myalgia, and profound fatigue. He denies cough or sore throat. Examination reveals mild scleral icterus. Liver function tests show elevated transaminases. He works closely with sheep and cattle. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Influenza
B. Leptospirosis
C. Brucellosis
D. Viral hepatitis A
E. Q fever
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question

A 32-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of fever, headache, and a rash that started on her wrists and ankles and has now spread to her trunk. She recently returned from a camping trip in the Northern Territory. On examination, she is febrile at 38.5°C, with a heart rate of 110 bpm and blood pressure of 100/70 mmHg. The rash is maculopapular and blanching. Laboratory tests reveal thrombocytopenia and elevated liver enzymes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Systemic lupus erythematosus
B. Drug reaction
C. Rickettsial infection
D. Viral exanthem
E. Meningococcal infection
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question
Figure 3 of paper: Alveolar echinococcosis in a patient with immunosuppression.

(a) Abdominal gray-scale US shows an abscess-like hepatic image.
(b) Axial unenhanced CT shows a typical aspect of pyogenic liver abscess.
Image by Wenya Liu, Éric Delabrousse, Oleg Blagosklonov, Jing Wang, Hongchun Zeng, Yi Jiang, Jian Wang, Yongde Qin, Dominique Angèle Vuitton, Hao Wen CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 62-year-old male with a history of poorly controlled diabetes presents with fever, RUQ pain, and recent travel to a rural area. Lab results show elevated ALP and GGT. Imaging is performed. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Metronidazole
B. Observation and serial imaging
C. Percutaneous drainage and antibiotics
D. Albendazole and surgical resection
E. Ceftriaxone and doxycycline
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question
Diverticular disease
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of worsening left lower quadrant abdominal pain, associated with fever and chills. He reports a change in bowel habit with increased constipation. On examination, he is febrile at 38.6°C and has significant tenderness and guarding in the left iliac fossa. His white cell count is 18 x 10^9/L. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed (image provided). Considering the patient's presentation and the findings on the provided image, which of the following represents the most appropriate initial management strategy?

A. Prescribe oral antibiotics and advise outpatient follow-up with his general practitioner.
B. Schedule an urgent colonoscopy to assess the extent of the disease process.
C. Initiate intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics and arrange hospital admission for monitoring.
D. Provide analgesia and antiemetics, and discharge home with instructions to return if symptoms worsen.
E. Arrange urgent surgical review for consideration of immediate operative intervention.
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question
Diverticular disease
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 68-year-old man presents with 3 days of worsening left lower quadrant pain, fever, and nausea. He has a history of diverticulosis. On examination, he is tachycardic (HR 105), afebrile (37.5°C), and has localised tenderness with guarding in the left iliac fossa. His blood tests show a WCC of 16 x 10^9/L and CRP 150 mg/L. He is commenced on intravenous antibiotics. A CT scan is performed (image provided). Considering the clinical context and the findings on the image, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Arrange for percutaneous drainage of the collection.
B. Prepare for urgent surgical resection of the affected bowel segment.
C. Transition to oral antibiotics and discharge home.
D. Request a repeat CT scan in 24 hours to assess for changes.
E. Continue intravenous antibiotics and monitor clinical progress.
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question
Diverticulitis in the left lower quadrant. There is outpouching of the colonic wall, wall thickening, and surrounding fat stranding.
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 55-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of left lower quadrant abdominal pain, associated with fever (38.2°C) and mild nausea. He denies vomiting, diarrhoea, or rectal bleeding. On examination, he has localised tenderness in the left iliac fossa. His blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, heart rate 85 bpm, respiratory rate 16 bpm. Blood tests show a white cell count of 14 x 10^9/L and CRP 80 mg/L. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed (image provided). Considering the patient's presentation and the findings on the provided image, which of the following is the most appropriate initial management strategy?

A. Intravenous antibiotics and hospital admission
B. Urgent surgical consultation for sigmoid colectomy
C. Oral antibiotics and outpatient management
D. Repeat CT scan in 24 hours to assess for progression
E. Immediate colonoscopy to assess the extent of disease
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question

A 5-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents due to a 3-day history of fever, irritability, and refusal to eat. On examination, he has a temperature of 39°C, erythematous oropharynx, and tender cervical lymphadenopathy. There are also vesicular lesions on his hands and feet. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Varicella (chickenpox)
B. Scarlet fever
C. Hand, foot, and mouth disease
D. Kawasaki disease
E. Herpangina
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question

A 25-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 2-week history of fatigue, sore throat, and swollen glands. She also reports a low-grade fever and mild headache. On examination, she has cervical lymphadenopathy and mild splenomegaly. A monospot test is positive. What is the most appropriate advice regarding her physical activity?

A. Engage in light exercise to improve symptoms
B. Resume normal activities immediately
C. Start a course of corticosteroids to reduce symptoms
D. Avoid all physical activity for 6 months
E. Avoid contact sports for at least 4 weeks
Mark this as a high-quality question
Mark this as a poor-quality or problematic question