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menorrhagia

Practice targeted AMC-style multiple-choice questions on menorrhagia.

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A 17-year-old teenage girl presents with menorrhagia and a family history of heavy periods and hysterectomy, suggestive of Von Willebrand Disease (VWD). Which statement about VWD is correct?

A. There are multiple VWD patterns; most are autosomal dominant (AD).
B. Treatment involves iron supplementation only.
C. It affects females more than males, with a ratio of approximately 2:1.
D. It is an X-linked recessive disorder.
E. Type 1 is the most severe form.
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A 55-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 3-month history of fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath on exertion. She has a history of menorrhagia. On examination, she appears pale and has conjunctival pallor. Blood tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 70 fL, and low serum ferritin. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Arrange for a blood transfusion
B. Refer for a colonoscopy
C. Prescribe erythropoietin
D. Start oral iron supplementation
E. Order a bone marrow biopsy
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