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fatigue

Practice targeted AMC-style multiple-choice questions on fatigue.

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PET-CT of a tuberculoma
Image by Annemie Snoeckx, Pieter Reyntiens, Damien Desbuquoit, Maarten J. Spinhoven, Paul E. Van Schil, Jan P. van Meerbeeck, Paul M. Parizel CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 28-year-old female presents with a chronic cough and fatigue. She has no significant past medical history but reports recent travel to Southeast Asia. A chest PET-CT was performed. What is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Order a bronchoscopy with biopsy
B. Start a trial of inhaled corticosteroids
C. Repeat the PET-CT scan in 3 months
D. Initiate anti-tuberculosis therapy
E. Prescribe a course of broad-spectrum antibiotics
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CT, ultrasonography, SPECT and scintigraphy of intra-thyroid parathyroid adenoma
Image by Mnahi Bin Saeedan, Ibtisam Musallam Aljohani, Ayman Omar Khushaim, Salwa Qasim Bukhari, Salahudin Tayeb Elnaas CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 62-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 6-month history of increasing fatigue, generalised bone aches, and constipation. She has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medications. Physical examination is unremarkable. Initial laboratory investigations reveal a corrected serum calcium level of 3.1 mmol/L (reference range: 2.1-2.6 mmol/L) and an elevated parathyroid hormone (PTH) level of 180 pg/mL (reference range: 10-65 pg/mL). A 24-hour urine calcium excretion is 12 mmol/day (reference range: 2.5-7.5 mmol/day). She is referred for further imaging, the results of which are shown. Based on the available information, what is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Order genetic testing for MEN syndromes
B. Surgical parathyroidectomy
C. Repeat parathyroid localisation imaging
D. Initiate medical therapy with cinacalcet
E. Perform a bone mineral density scan
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Hepatic metastases from a gastric mixed adenoneuroendocrine carcinoma (MANEC).
Image by Hellerhoff CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 68-year-old male presents with fatigue and weight loss. The provided image was obtained. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Initiate palliative care consultation
B. Percutaneous ethanol ablation of selected lesions
C. Referral to medical oncology for systemic therapy
D. Surgical resection of the largest lesion
E. Repeat imaging in 3 months to assess progression
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CT, ultrasonography, SPECT and scintigraphy of intra-thyroid parathyroid adenoma
Image by Mnahi Bin Saeedan, Ibtisam Musallam Aljohani, Ayman Omar Khushaim, Salwa Qasim Bukhari, Salahudin Tayeb Elnaas CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 58-year-old woman presents with fatigue, muscle weakness, and abdominal pain. Labs show serum calcium 3.2 mmol/L and PTH 190 pg/mL. Renal function is normal. Imaging studies are shown. Based on the clinical presentation, laboratory findings, and imaging studies, what is the MOST appropriate next step in managing this patient?

A. Start intravenous fluids and calcitonin
B. Initiate medical management with cinacalcet
C. Refer for genetic testing for MEN syndromes
D. Repeat imaging studies in 6 months
E. Surgical parathyroidectomy
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A 62-year-old man presents with a 4-month history of increasing fatigue, unintentional weight loss of 7 kg, and intermittent upper abdominal discomfort. He reports no change in bowel habits, dysphagia, or vomiting. His past medical history includes hypertension and osteoarthritis. He is a non-smoker and drinks alcohol occasionally. On examination, he is pale. His vital signs are stable. Abdominal examination reveals mild epigastric tenderness but no masses or organomegaly. There is no peripheral lymphadenopathy. Initial blood tests show haemoglobin 92 g/L (reference range 130-170), MCV 74 fL (80-95), ferritin 12 mcg/L (30-300), and CRP 18 mg/L (<5). Liver function tests and renal function tests are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial investigation?

A. Abdominal and pelvic CT scan
B. Faecal occult blood testing
C. Gastroscopy and colonoscopy
D. Upper gastrointestinal barium study
E. Bone marrow biopsy
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A 45-year-old man presents to the general practice clinic with a 3-month history of fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats. He has a history of smoking and works as a construction worker. On examination, he has cervical lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly. Blood tests reveal anemia and elevated lactate dehydrogenase (LDH). A chest X-ray shows a mediastinal mass. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Initiate corticosteroid therapy
B. Start empirical antibiotic therapy
C. Order a CT scan of the chest and abdomen
D. Perform a lymph node biopsy
E. Refer for surgical excision of the mass
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A 10-year-old presents with a sore throat, fever, and fatigue for 2 days. Examination reveals tonsillar exudates and tender anterior cervical lymph nodes. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Advise symptomatic treatment with paracetamol
B. Refer to an ENT specialist
C. Perform a rapid strep test
D. Order a throat culture
E. Prescribe oral amoxicillin
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A 72-year-old man with fatigue and a past myocardial infarction at 55 is breathless on stairs, has a 3 kg weight gain, and ankle marks. What is his likely NYHA functional class for chronic heart failure?

A. NYHA Class 3
B. NYHA Class 2
C. NYHA Class 4
D. NYHA Class 1
E. Not enough information to classify.
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Hepatic metastases from a gastric mixed adenoneuroendocrine carcinoma (MANEC).
Image by Hellerhoff CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 68-year-old male presents with fatigue, weight loss, and vague abdominal discomfort. His past medical history includes a recent diagnosis of gastric mixed adenoneuroendocrine carcinoma (MANEC). The provided image was obtained as part of his staging workup. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Referral to medical oncology for systemic chemotherapy
B. Surgical resection of the affected liver segments
C. Initiation of palliative care and symptom management
D. Administration of intravenous antibiotics for presumed liver abscesses
E. Percutaneous ethanol ablation of the largest lesion
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A 48-year-old sheep farmer presents to his GP with a two-week history of persistent fever, severe retro-orbital headache, and profound fatigue. He denies cough, shortness of breath, or rash. On examination, his temperature is 38.5°C, pulse 85 bpm, BP 120/80 mmHg. The remainder of the examination, including chest auscultation, is unremarkable. He has not travelled outside the region recently.

A. Acute Q fever
B. Atypical pneumonia
C. Leptospirosis
D. Brucellosis
E. Influenza
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A 68-year-old man presents to the emergency department with fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath on exertion. His blood tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 7.5 g/dL, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 72 fL, and low serum ferritin. He has a history of osteoarthritis and takes ibuprofen regularly. What is the most likely cause of his anemia?

A. Thalassemia minor
B. Vitamin B12 deficiency
C. Chronic blood loss due to gastrointestinal bleeding
D. Anemia of chronic disease
E. Hemolytic anemia
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Ileitis terminalis bei langjaehrigem Morbus Crohn 63W - CT und MRT - 001
Image by Hellerhoff CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 28-year-old male with Crohn's presents with increased abdominal pain, non-bloody diarrhea, and fatigue for 3 weeks. He denies fever. Exam shows mild RLQ tenderness. Labs show elevated CRP. Imaging is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A. Prescribe antibiotics for possible infectious colitis
B. Schedule a colonoscopy with biopsy
C. Start a course of oral corticosteroids
D. Initiate anti-TNF therapy
E. Increase mesalamine dose
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CT, ultrasonography, SPECT and scintigraphy of intra-thyroid parathyroid adenoma
Image by Mnahi Bin Saeedan, Ibtisam Musallam Aljohani, Ayman Omar Khushaim, Salwa Qasim Bukhari, Salahudin Tayeb Elnaas CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 62-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 6-month history of increasing fatigue, generalised bone aches, and constipation. She denies polyuria or polydipsia. Her past medical history is unremarkable, and she takes no regular medications. On examination, her vital signs are stable, and there are no palpable neck masses. Initial laboratory investigations show serum calcium 3.1 mmol/L (2.1-2.6), phosphate 0.7 mmol/L (0.8-1.4), PTH 180 pg/mL (10-65), and 24-hour urine calcium 450 mg (100-300). She is referred for further imaging, the results of which are shown. Based on the available information, what is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Perform a bone mineral density scan
B. Initiate medical therapy with cinacalcet
C. Order genetic testing for MEN syndromes
D. Repeat parathyroid localisation imaging
E. Surgical parathyroidectomy
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 3-month history of fatigue, joint pain, and a facial rash that worsens with sun exposure. She also reports hair loss and oral ulcers. On examination, she has a malar rash and mild swelling of the small joints of her hands. Laboratory tests reveal a positive ANA and anti-dsDNA antibodies. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Dermatomyositis
B. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
C. Psoriatic arthritis
D. Sjogren's syndrome
E. Rheumatoid arthritis
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CT, ultrasonography, SPECT and scintigraphy of intra-thyroid parathyroid adenoma
Image by Mnahi Bin Saeedan, Ibtisam Musallam Aljohani, Ayman Omar Khushaim, Salwa Qasim Bukhari, Salahudin Tayeb Elnaas CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 62-year-old woman presents with fatigue, constipation, and bone pain. Serum calcium is elevated. The images are obtained. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Bisphosphonate therapy
B. Vitamin D supplementation
C. Observation with serial calcium monitoring
D. Surgical excision of the identified lesion
E. Cinacalcet administration
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CT, ultrasonography, SPECT and scintigraphy of intra-thyroid parathyroid adenoma
Image by Mnahi Bin Saeedan, Ibtisam Musallam Aljohani, Ayman Omar Khushaim, Salwa Qasim Bukhari, Salahudin Tayeb Elnaas CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 58-year-old woman presents with persistent fatigue, muscle weakness, and vague abdominal pain. Investigations reveal serum calcium 3.2 mmol/L (2.1-2.6), PTH 190 pg/mL (10-65). Renal function is normal. She denies family history of endocrine disorders. Imaging studies are performed, as shown. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings from the imaging modalities, what is the definitive management strategy for this patient?

A. Initiation of bisphosphonate therapy
B. Surgical excision of the identified lesion
C. Observation with regular monitoring of calcium and PTH levels
D. Radiofrequency ablation of the lesion
E. Long-term medical management with cinacalcet
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A 65-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with fatigue and pallor. She has a history of rheumatoid arthritis, for which she takes methotrexate and folic acid. She denies any gastrointestinal symptoms or recent changes in her diet. On examination, she appears pale, and her conjunctivae are pale as well. Her blood pressure is 120/75 mmHg, heart rate is 88 bpm, and respiratory rate is 16 breaths per minute. Laboratory investigations reveal hemoglobin of 9.0 g/dL, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 105 fL, and normal white blood cell and platelet counts. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her anemia?

A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. Anemia of chronic disease
C. Hemolytic anemia
D. Methotrexate-induced macrocytic anemia
E. Vitamin B12 deficiency
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Endoscopy image of colon adenocarcinoma in sigmoid colon.
Image by Unknown CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 58-year-old male presents with fatigue and microcytic anemia. He denies overt bleeding but reports occasional dark stools. Colonoscopy reveals the image shown. Biopsies confirm adenocarcinoma. What is the MOST appropriate next investigation to stage the cancer?

A. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) level
B. Endoscopic ultrasound
C. MRI of the abdomen and pelvis
D. CT scan of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis
E. PET-CT scan
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A 24-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of fever, sore throat, and fatigue. She also reports a rash that developed after taking amoxicillin prescribed by her GP for a presumed bacterial throat infection. On examination, she has cervical lymphadenopathy, a diffuse maculopapular rash, and mild splenomegaly. Her vital signs are stable. A monospot test is positive. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the rash?

A. Scarlet fever
B. Allergic reaction to amoxicillin
C. Amoxicillin-induced rash in the context of infectious mononucleosis
D. Drug-induced lupus erythematosus
E. Stevens-Johnson syndrome
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CT, ultrasonography, SPECT and scintigraphy of intra-thyroid parathyroid adenoma
Image by Mnahi Bin Saeedan, Ibtisam Musallam Aljohani, Ayman Omar Khushaim, Salwa Qasim Bukhari, Salahudin Tayeb Elnaas CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 62-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner complaining of fatigue, bone pain, and constipation for the past several months. She denies any significant past medical history. Initial laboratory investigations reveal an elevated serum calcium level of 3.1 mmol/L (reference range: 2.1-2.6 mmol/L) and an elevated parathyroid hormone (PTH) level of 180 pg/mL (reference range: 10-65 pg/mL). A 24-hour urine calcium excretion is also elevated. The patient is referred for further imaging, the results of which are shown. Based on the available information, what is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Surgical excision of the identified lesion
B. Vitamin D supplementation
C. Cinacalcet administration
D. Initiation of bisphosphonate therapy
E. Observation with serial calcium and PTH monitoring
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A 62-year-old woman presents with tiredness and is found to have B12 deficiency. What is the likely associated condition?

A. Pernicious anemia
B. Recent viral infection
C. Sulphonylurea use
D. Low vegetable, high meat diet.
E. Iron deficiency anemia
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Ileitis terminalis bei langjaehrigem Morbus Crohn 63W - CT und MRT - 001
Image by Hellerhoff CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 28-year-old male with Crohn's presents with increased abdominal pain, non-bloody diarrhea, and fatigue for 3 weeks. He denies fever. Exam shows mild RLQ tenderness. Labs show elevated CRP. Imaging is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A. Prescribe a 5-ASA enema
B. Start a course of oral corticosteroids
C. Increase the dose of his current mesalamine
D. Order a stool culture to rule out infection
E. Initiate anti-TNF therapy
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CT, ultrasonography, SPECT and scintigraphy of intra-thyroid parathyroid adenoma
Image by Mnahi Bin Saeedan, Ibtisam Musallam Aljohani, Ayman Omar Khushaim, Salwa Qasim Bukhari, Salahudin Tayeb Elnaas CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 62-year-old woman presents with fatigue, constipation, and bone pain. Serum calcium is elevated. The provided imaging was obtained. What is the MOST likely underlying cause of her presentation?

A. Parathyroid adenoma
B. Multiple myeloma
C. Thyroid carcinoma
D. Metastatic bone disease
E. Vitamin D deficiency
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PET-CT of a tuberculoma
Image by Annemie Snoeckx, Pieter Reyntiens, Damien Desbuquoit, Maarten J. Spinhoven, Paul E. Van Schil, Jan P. van Meerbeeck, Paul M. Parizel CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 28-year-old male presents with a persistent cough and fatigue. A PET-CT scan was performed. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

A. Lung abscess
B. Pneumocystis pneumonia
C. Aspergilloma
D. Bronchogenic carcinoma
E. Tuberculoma
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A 55-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 3-month history of fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath on exertion. She has a history of menorrhagia. On examination, she appears pale and has conjunctival pallor. Blood tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 70 fL, and low serum ferritin. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Arrange for a blood transfusion
B. Refer for a colonoscopy
C. Prescribe erythropoietin
D. Start oral iron supplementation
E. Order a bone marrow biopsy
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A 52-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with fatigue, increased thirst, and frequent urination over the past three months. She has a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia, for which she takes lisinopril and atorvastatin. Her BMI is 32 kg/m². On examination, her blood pressure is 140/85 mmHg, and her heart rate is 78 bpm. Laboratory tests reveal a fasting plasma glucose of 8.5 mmol/L and an HbA1c of 7.2%. She is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management step for this patient according to Australian guidelines?

A. Lifestyle modification including diet and exercise
B. Commencement of insulin therapy
C. Initiation of metformin therapy
D. Referral to an endocrinologist
E. Addition of a sulfonylurea
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Endoscopy image of colon adenocarcinoma in sigmoid colon.
Image by Unknown CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 65-year-old male presents with fatigue and occult blood in stool. Colonoscopy reveals the lesion shown. Biopsy confirms adenocarcinoma. What is the MOST appropriate next investigation to determine disease stage?

A. MRI of abdomen
B. CEA level
C. PET scan
D. CT scan of abdomen and pelvis
E. Endoscopic ultrasound
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A 45-year-old woman presents with fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance. On examination, she has dry skin and a delayed relaxation phase of deep tendon reflexes. Her TSH level is elevated, and free T4 is low. What is the most appropriate treatment for her condition?

A. Radioactive iodine therapy
B. Methimazole
C. Beta-blockers
D. Levothyroxine
E. Surgical thyroidectomy
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A 65-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension presents with exertional dyspnea and fatigue. His physical examination reveals a blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg, a heart rate of 88 bpm, and a soft S4 gallop. There is no peripheral edema. An electrocardiogram shows left ventricular hypertrophy with repolarization abnormalities. Which of the following diagnostic tests would be most appropriate to evaluate for underlying coronary artery disease in this patient?

A. Coronary angiography
B. Cardiac MRI
C. 24-hour Holter monitoring
D. Transthoracic echocardiography without stress
E. Exercise stress echocardiography
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A 68-year-old man with a history of hypertension and coronary artery disease presents to the emergency department with worsening shortness of breath and fatigue over the past week. On examination, he has elevated jugular venous pressure, bilateral lung crackles, and peripheral edema. An echocardiogram reveals reduced ejection fraction and dilated ventricles. Which of the following best explains the pathophysiological mechanism leading to his symptoms?

A. Increased peripheral resistance leading to left ventricular hypertrophy
B. Decreased venous return causing systemic hypotension
C. Enhanced myocardial contractility resulting in fluid retention
D. Decreased cardiac output leading to activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
E. Increased cardiac output causing pulmonary congestion
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A 55-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and fatigue. His blood tests reveal a fasting blood glucose level of 15 mmol/L and HbA1c of 9.5%. He is currently on metformin. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Increase the dose of metformin
B. Switch to insulin therapy
C. Add a DPP-4 inhibitor
D. Add a sulfonylurea
E. Start lifestyle modifications
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A 72-year-old man with a history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation presents to the emergency department with worsening shortness of breath and fatigue over the past two weeks. He reports occasional palpitations but denies chest pain or syncope. On examination, his blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, heart rate is 130 bpm (irregularly irregular), respiratory rate is 22 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation is 94% on room air. Jugular venous pressure is elevated, and there are bilateral lung crackles. An ECG shows atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular response. An echocardiogram reveals moderate mitral regurgitation and left atrial enlargement. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management step?

A. Initiation of antiarrhythmic therapy with amiodarone
B. Rate control with intravenous diltiazem
C. Immediate electrical cardioversion
D. Initiation of oral anticoagulation
E. Referral for mitral valve surgery
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A 45-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a 3-month history of fatigue, weight gain, and feeling cold all the time. She also reports constipation and dry skin. On examination, her heart rate is 55 bpm, and she has a delayed relaxation phase of her deep tendon reflexes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Chronic fatigue syndrome
B. Iron deficiency anemia
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Cushing's syndrome
E. Depression
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CT, ultrasonography, SPECT and scintigraphy of intra-thyroid parathyroid adenoma
Image by Mnahi Bin Saeedan, Ibtisam Musallam Aljohani, Ayman Omar Khushaim, Salwa Qasim Bukhari, Salahudin Tayeb Elnaas CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 58-year-old woman presents with persistent fatigue, muscle weakness, and vague abdominal pain. Her serum calcium is 3.2 mmol/L (2.1-2.6 mmol/L), and PTH is 190 pg/mL (10-65 pg/mL). Renal function is normal. She denies any family history of endocrine disorders. Imaging studies are performed, as shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in managing this patient?

A. Vitamin D supplementation and repeat calcium measurement in 3 months
B. Surgical excision of the identified lesion
C. Cinacalcet administration to lower PTH levels
D. Bisphosphonate therapy and monitoring of calcium levels
E. Thyroidectomy
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A 60-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 3-month history of increasing fatigue and joint pain, particularly in her hands and knees. She also reports morning stiffness lasting over an hour. On examination, there is swelling and tenderness in the metacarpophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints. Blood tests reveal a positive rheumatoid factor and elevated C-reactive protein. What is the most appropriate initial treatment for her condition?

A. Hydroxychloroquine
B. Prednisone
C. Sulfasalazine
D. Methotrexate
E. Ibuprofen
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A 70-year-old woman with a history of hypertension presents with fatigue, shortness of breath, and bilateral leg swelling. Echocardiography shows an ejection fraction of 30%. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?

A. Calcium channel blocker
B. Nitrate therapy
C. ACE inhibitor and beta-blocker
D. Digoxin
E. Diuretic therapy alone
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A 35-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 3-month history of fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats. He has no significant past medical history and does not take any medications. On examination, he has palpable cervical and axillary lymphadenopathy. A lymph node biopsy reveals Reed-Sternberg cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Hodgkin's lymphoma
D. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
E. Tuberculosis
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Endoscopy image of colon adenocarcinoma in sigmoid colon.
Image by Unknown CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 58-year-old male presents with fatigue and iron deficiency anemia. Colonoscopy reveals the image shown. Biopsies are taken. Assuming pathology confirms malignancy, what is the MOST appropriate next investigation to determine disease stage?

A. CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis
B. PET-CT scan
C. Endoscopic ultrasound
D. MRI of the abdomen and pelvis
E. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) level
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A 52-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with fatigue, increased thirst, and frequent urination over the past three months. She has a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia, managed with lisinopril and atorvastatin. Her BMI is 32 kg/m². On examination, her blood pressure is 140/85 mmHg, and her heart rate is 78 bpm. Laboratory tests reveal a fasting plasma glucose of 8.5 mmol/L and an HbA1c of 7.2%. She is concerned about her risk of complications and asks about the best initial management strategy. Considering Australian guidelines, what is the most appropriate next step in managing her condition?

A. Initiate metformin therapy
B. Advise lifestyle modifications only
C. Prescribe a sulfonylurea
D. Refer to an endocrinologist immediately
E. Start insulin therapy
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A 30-year-old woman presents to her GP with fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance over the past 6 months. She also reports constipation and dry skin. On examination, she has a slightly enlarged, non-tender thyroid gland. Her TSH level is elevated, and free T4 is low. What is the most appropriate treatment for this condition?

A. Radioactive iodine therapy
B. Levothyroxine
C. Methimazole
D. Beta-blockers
E. Thyroidectomy
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A 50-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 3-month history of fatigue, weight gain, and feeling cold all the time. She also reports constipation and dry skin. On examination, she has a slow heart rate and delayed relaxation of deep tendon reflexes. Her thyroid function tests show elevated TSH and low free T4 levels. What is the most appropriate treatment for her condition?

A. Radioactive iodine therapy
B. Methimazole
C. Beta-blockers
D. Surgical thyroidectomy
E. Levothyroxine
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A 60-year-old man presents to his GP with a 3-month history of fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats. He has a history of smoking and hypertension. On examination, he has palpable lymphadenopathy in the cervical and axillary regions. Blood tests reveal anemia and elevated lactate dehydrogenase (LDH). What is the most appropriate next step in the investigation of this patient?

A. PET scan
B. Excisional lymph node biopsy
C. CT scan of the chest and abdomen
D. Fine needle aspiration of the lymph node
E. Bone marrow biopsy
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Hepatic metastases from a gastric mixed adenoneuroendocrine carcinoma (MANEC).
Image by Hellerhoff CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 62-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of worsening abdominal pain, fatigue, and a 10kg unintentional weight loss over the past 3 months. He reports a history of peptic ulcer disease treated with long-term proton pump inhibitors. Physical examination reveals mild hepatomegaly and trace ascites. Initial laboratory investigations show elevated alkaline phosphatase and gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT), with normal bilirubin and transaminases. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis with contrast is performed, and relevant images are shown. Given the clinical presentation and the findings on the imaging, which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Initiation of ursodeoxycholic acid for presumed primary biliary cholangitis
B. Observation with serial liver function tests in 3 months
C. Referral to medical oncology for consideration of systemic chemotherapy
D. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy for suspected biliary dyskinesia
E. Percutaneous liver biopsy for histological diagnosis
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A 35-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 3-month history of fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats. He also reports a persistent cough that has recently become productive of blood-streaked sputum. He has no significant past medical history and is not on any medications. He recently returned from a trip to Southeast Asia. On examination, he is febrile and has bilateral crackles in the upper lung fields. A chest X-ray shows cavitary lesions in the upper lobes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Community-acquired pneumonia
B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
C. Lung cancer
D. Sarcoidosis
E. Pulmonary tuberculosis
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Hepatic metastases from a gastric mixed adenoneuroendocrine carcinoma (MANEC).
Image by Hellerhoff CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 68-year-old male presents with fatigue, weight loss, and vague abdominal discomfort. His past medical history is significant for a recently diagnosed gastric mixed adenoneuroendocrine carcinoma (MANEC). A CT scan of the abdomen is performed. Based on the imaging, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Observation with serial imaging
B. Palliative chemotherapy
C. Liver transplantation
D. Radiofrequency ablation of liver lesions
E. Surgical resection of the primary tumor
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PET-CT of a tuberculoma
Image by Annemie Snoeckx, Pieter Reyntiens, Damien Desbuquoit, Maarten J. Spinhoven, Paul E. Van Schil, Jan P. van Meerbeeck, Paul M. Parizel CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 45-year-old male, who recently immigrated from India, presents to his primary care physician with a two-month history of progressive fatigue, unintentional weight loss of 7 kg, and intermittent night sweats. He denies any cough, chest pain, or shortness of breath. He has no significant past medical history and is not currently taking any medications. Physical examination reveals normal vital signs, including a temperature of 37.1°C, and clear breath sounds bilaterally. However, mild cervical lymphadenopathy is noted. Initial laboratory investigations, including a complete blood count and comprehensive metabolic panel, are unremarkable. A chest X-ray reveals a solitary pulmonary nodule in the right upper lobe, which prompts a PET-CT scan for further evaluation. An axial slice from the PET-CT is shown. Given the patient's clinical presentation, immigration history, and the PET-CT findings, which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in establishing a definitive diagnosis?

A. Bronchoscopy with transbronchial needle aspiration of the lesion
B. Administer a purified protein derivative (PPD) skin test
C. Order a CT-guided percutaneous needle biopsy of the lung nodule
D. Repeat PET-CT scan in three months to assess for interval growth
E. Initiate empiric antibiotic therapy with a broad-spectrum antibiotic
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A 55-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 3-month history of fatigue, weight loss, and abdominal discomfort. He has a history of chronic hepatitis B infection. On examination, he has mild hepatomegaly and jaundice. Blood tests reveal elevated liver enzymes and alpha-fetoprotein levels. An ultrasound of the abdomen shows a 3 cm lesion in the right lobe of the liver. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Hepatocellular carcinoma
B. Metastatic liver disease
C. Focal nodular hyperplasia
D. Liver cirrhosis
E. Hepatic adenoma
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A 25-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 2-week history of fatigue, sore throat, and swollen glands. She also reports a low-grade fever and mild headache. On examination, she has cervical lymphadenopathy and mild splenomegaly. A monospot test is positive. What is the most appropriate advice regarding her physical activity?

A. Engage in light exercise to improve symptoms
B. Resume normal activities immediately
C. Start a course of corticosteroids to reduce symptoms
D. Avoid all physical activity for 6 months
E. Avoid contact sports for at least 4 weeks
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a 2-month history of fatigue, weight gain, and feeling cold all the time. She also reports hair loss and constipation. On examination, her heart rate is 58 bpm, and she has dry skin and a delayed relaxation phase of the deep tendon reflexes. Her thyroid function tests reveal a high TSH level and low free T4. She has no significant past medical history and is not on any medications. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management for her condition?

A. Propranolol
B. Radioactive iodine therapy
C. Methimazole
D. Thyroidectomy
E. Levothyroxine
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A 28-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a 2-week history of fatigue, joint pain, and a facial rash that worsens with sun exposure. She also reports hair loss and oral ulcers. On examination, she has a malar rash and mild swelling in her hands. Laboratory tests reveal a positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) test and elevated anti-double-stranded DNA antibodies. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
B. Dermatomyositis
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Psoriatic arthritis
E. Sjögren's syndrome
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