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fatigue

Practice targeted AMC-style multiple-choice questions on fatigue.

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CT, ultrasonography, SPECT and scintigraphy of intra-thyroid parathyroid adenoma
Image by Mnahi Bin Saeedan, Ibtisam Musallam Aljohani, Ayman Omar Khushaim, Salwa Qasim Bukhari, Salahudin Tayeb Elnaas CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 62-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 6-month history of increasing fatigue, generalised bone aches, and constipation. She has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medications. Physical examination is unremarkable. Initial laboratory investigations reveal a corrected serum calcium level of 3.1 mmol/L (reference range: 2.1-2.6 mmol/L) and an elevated parathyroid hormone (PTH) level of 180 pg/mL (reference range: 10-65 pg/mL). A 24-hour urine calcium excretion is 12 mmol/day (reference range: 2.5-7.5 mmol/day). She is referred for further imaging, the results of which are shown. Based on the available information, what is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Order genetic testing for MEN syndromes
B. Surgical parathyroidectomy
C. Repeat parathyroid localisation imaging
D. Initiate medical therapy with cinacalcet
E. Perform a bone mineral density scan
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A 48-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 3-month history of increasing fatigue, exertional dyspnoea, and a persistent cough productive of small amounts of mucus. She mentions a history of recurrent 'sinus infections' over the past year, often treated with antibiotics. She has recently felt lightheaded on standing. On examination, her blood pressure is 95/60 mmHg, pulse 88 bpm, respiratory rate 20 breaths/min, and oxygen saturation 96% on room air. Chest auscultation reveals diffuse expiratory wheezes. Blood tests performed last week show haemoglobin 85 g/L (reference range 120-150), MCV 72 fL (reference range 80-100), and normal white cell count and platelet count. Spirometry performed concurrently shows an FEV1/FVC ratio of 0.65 (predicted >0.70) with partial reversibility after bronchodilator. Considering the clinical presentation and investigations, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Order ANCA testing.
B. Initiate iron supplementation and investigate for gastrointestinal blood loss.
C. Arrange a high-resolution CT scan of the chest and sinuses.
D. Refer for urgent bronchoscopy.
E. Prescribe a course of oral corticosteroids and review in one week.
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A 45-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 2-month history of fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats. He has a history of smoking and works as a miner. On examination, he has cervical lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly. A chest X-ray shows bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Lung cancer
B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
C. Lymphoma
D. Sarcoidosis
E. Tuberculosis
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A 72-year-old man with a history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and chronic kidney disease (CKD) presents to his general practitioner for a routine check-up. His current medications include metformin, insulin glargine, amlodipine, and aspirin. His blood pressure today is 150/90 mmHg. Laboratory results show a serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dL (baseline 2.0 mg/dL), potassium of 5.4 mEq/L, and a urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio (ACR) of 350 mg/g. The GP decides to add an ACE inhibitor to his medication regimen to help manage his blood pressure and proteinuria. One week later, the patient returns complaining of fatigue and muscle weakness. Repeat laboratory testing reveals a serum creatinine of 3.1 mg/dL and a potassium of 6.2 mEq/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

A. Discontinue the ACE inhibitor and administer calcium gluconate
B. Add a potassium-sparing diuretic to counteract the hyperkalemia
C. Continue the ACE inhibitor and add a loop diuretic
D. Prescribe a potassium-binding resin and continue the ACE inhibitor
E. Reduce the dose of the ACE inhibitor by 50% and monitor renal function closely
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A 45-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of progressive shortness of breath, dry cough, and fatigue. She has a history of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and is currently on hydroxychloroquine and low-dose prednisone. She denies fever, chest pain, or recent travel. On examination, her temperature is 37.2°C, blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, heart rate is 95 bpm, respiratory rate is 22 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation is 89% on room air. Lung auscultation reveals bilateral basal crackles. Laboratory tests show a hemoglobin level of 10.5 g/dL, white blood cell count of 4,000/mm³, and platelets of 150,000/mm³. Arterial blood gas analysis reveals a pH of 7.45, PaCO2 of 35 mmHg, and PaO2 of 55 mmHg. A chest X-ray shows bilateral interstitial infiltrates. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Initiation of non-invasive ventilation
B. High-dose intravenous methylprednisolone
C. Intravenous cyclophosphamide
D. Empirical broad-spectrum antibiotics
E. Bronchoscopy with bronchoalveolar lavage
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A 62-year-old man presents with a 4-month history of increasing fatigue, unintentional weight loss of 7 kg, and intermittent upper abdominal discomfort. He reports no change in bowel habits, dysphagia, or vomiting. His past medical history includes hypertension and osteoarthritis. He is a non-smoker and drinks alcohol occasionally. On examination, he is pale. His vital signs are stable. Abdominal examination reveals mild epigastric tenderness but no masses or organomegaly. There is no peripheral lymphadenopathy. Initial blood tests show haemoglobin 92 g/L (reference range 130-170), MCV 74 fL (80-95), ferritin 12 mcg/L (30-300), and CRP 18 mg/L (<5). Liver function tests and renal function tests are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial investigation?

A. Abdominal and pelvic CT scan
B. Faecal occult blood testing
C. Gastroscopy and colonoscopy
D. Upper gastrointestinal barium study
E. Bone marrow biopsy
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A 45-year-old man presents to the general practice clinic with a 3-month history of fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats. He has a history of smoking and works as a construction worker. On examination, he has cervical lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly. Blood tests reveal anemia and elevated lactate dehydrogenase (LDH). A chest X-ray shows a mediastinal mass. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Initiate corticosteroid therapy
B. Start empirical antibiotic therapy
C. Order a CT scan of the chest and abdomen
D. Perform a lymph node biopsy
E. Refer for surgical excision of the mass
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a 2-week history of fatigue, joint pain, and a facial rash that worsens with sun exposure. She also reports hair loss and oral ulcers. On examination, she has a malar rash and mild swelling of the small joints in her hands. Laboratory tests reveal a positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) and anti-double-stranded DNA antibodies. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Psoriatic arthritis
B. Dermatomyositis
C. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
D. Rheumatoid arthritis
E. Sjogren's syndrome
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A 72-year-old man with fatigue and a past myocardial infarction at 55 is breathless on stairs, has a 3 kg weight gain, and ankle marks. What is his likely NYHA functional class for chronic heart failure?

A. NYHA Class 3
B. NYHA Class 2
C. NYHA Class 4
D. NYHA Class 1
E. Not enough information to classify.
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A 45-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a 3-month history of progressive fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance. She also reports constipation and dry skin. On examination, her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, heart rate is 60 bpm, and she has a delayed relaxation phase of her deep tendon reflexes. Laboratory tests reveal a low free T4 level and an elevated TSH level. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?

A. Beta-blockers
B. Levothyroxine
C. Thyroidectomy
D. Methimazole
E. Radioactive iodine therapy
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A 60-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 3-month history of fatigue, weight gain, and feeling cold all the time. She also reports constipation and dry skin. On examination, she has a slow heart rate and her skin appears dry and coarse. What is the most appropriate initial investigation?

A. Serum TSH level
B. Complete blood count
C. Serum cortisol level
D. Liver function tests
E. Serum calcium level
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Hepatic metastases from a gastric mixed adenoneuroendocrine carcinoma (MANEC).
Image by Hellerhoff CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 68-year-old male presents with fatigue, weight loss, and vague abdominal discomfort. His past medical history includes a recent diagnosis of gastric mixed adenoneuroendocrine carcinoma (MANEC). The provided image was obtained as part of his staging workup. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Referral to medical oncology for systemic chemotherapy
B. Surgical resection of the affected liver segments
C. Initiation of palliative care and symptom management
D. Administration of intravenous antibiotics for presumed liver abscesses
E. Percutaneous ethanol ablation of the largest lesion
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A 68-year-old man presents to the emergency department with fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath on exertion. His blood tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 7.5 g/dL, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 72 fL, and low serum ferritin. He has a history of osteoarthritis and takes ibuprofen regularly. What is the most likely cause of his anemia?

A. Thalassemia minor
B. Vitamin B12 deficiency
C. Chronic blood loss due to gastrointestinal bleeding
D. Anemia of chronic disease
E. Hemolytic anemia
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A 72-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and chronic kidney disease (stage 3) presents with a 2-week history of exertional dyspnea and fatigue. He reports no chest pain but has noticed occasional palpitations. On examination, his blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, heart rate is 110 bpm (irregularly irregular), respiratory rate is 20 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation is 94% on room air. Cardiovascular examination reveals a variable intensity S1, no S3 or S4, and a soft systolic murmur at the apex. Lung fields are clear. An ECG shows absent P waves and irregularly irregular QRS complexes. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Start a beta-blocker for rate control
B. Administer intravenous digoxin
C. Perform immediate electrical cardioversion
D. Initiate anticoagulation therapy
E. Refer for urgent coronary angiography
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Ileitis terminalis bei langjaehrigem Morbus Crohn 63W - CT und MRT - 001
Image by Hellerhoff CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 28-year-old male with Crohn's presents with increased abdominal pain, non-bloody diarrhea, and fatigue for 3 weeks. He denies fever. Exam shows mild RLQ tenderness. Labs show elevated CRP. Imaging is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A. Prescribe antibiotics for possible infectious colitis
B. Schedule a colonoscopy with biopsy
C. Start a course of oral corticosteroids
D. Initiate anti-TNF therapy
E. Increase mesalamine dose
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 3-month history of fatigue, joint pain, and a facial rash that worsens with sun exposure. She also reports hair loss and oral ulcers. On examination, she has a malar rash and mild swelling of the small joints of her hands. Laboratory tests reveal a positive ANA and anti-dsDNA antibodies. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Dermatomyositis
B. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
C. Psoriatic arthritis
D. Sjogren's syndrome
E. Rheumatoid arthritis
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PET-CT of a tuberculoma
Image by Annemie Snoeckx, Pieter Reyntiens, Damien Desbuquoit, Maarten J. Spinhoven, Paul E. Van Schil, Jan P. van Meerbeeck, Paul M. Parizel CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 28-year-old female, recently emigrated from Southeast Asia, presents to her general practitioner with complaints of fatigue, a persistent low-grade fever (37.8°C), and a non-productive cough that has been present for approximately one month. She denies any significant past medical history and is not currently taking any medications. Physical examination reveals slightly diminished breath sounds in the upper right lobe, but is otherwise unremarkable. Initial blood work, including a complete blood count and comprehensive metabolic panel, are within normal limits. A chest X-ray revealed a suspicious lesion in the right upper lobe, prompting a PET-CT scan, an axial slice of which is shown. Given the patient's history, clinical presentation, and the findings on the PET-CT scan, which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in the diagnostic workup?

A. Prescribe a course of broad-spectrum antibiotics to cover community-acquired pneumonia.
B. Order a CT-guided needle biopsy of the lesion.
C. Start empiric treatment with isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol (HRZE).
D. Refer the patient to a pulmonologist for bronchoscopy with bronchoalveolar lavage.
E. Initiate sputum acid-fast bacilli (AFB) smears and cultures.
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CT, ultrasonography, SPECT and scintigraphy of intra-thyroid parathyroid adenoma
Image by Mnahi Bin Saeedan, Ibtisam Musallam Aljohani, Ayman Omar Khushaim, Salwa Qasim Bukhari, Salahudin Tayeb Elnaas CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 62-year-old woman presents with fatigue, constipation, and bone pain. Serum calcium is elevated. The images are obtained. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Bisphosphonate therapy
B. Vitamin D supplementation
C. Observation with serial calcium monitoring
D. Surgical excision of the identified lesion
E. Cinacalcet administration
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A 65-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with fatigue and pallor. She has a history of rheumatoid arthritis, for which she takes methotrexate and folic acid. She denies any gastrointestinal symptoms or recent changes in her diet. On examination, she appears pale, and her conjunctivae are pale as well. Her blood pressure is 120/75 mmHg, heart rate is 88 bpm, and respiratory rate is 16 breaths per minute. Laboratory investigations reveal hemoglobin of 9.0 g/dL, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 105 fL, and normal white blood cell and platelet counts. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her anemia?

A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. Anemia of chronic disease
C. Hemolytic anemia
D. Methotrexate-induced macrocytic anemia
E. Vitamin B12 deficiency
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Endoscopy image of colon adenocarcinoma in sigmoid colon.
Image by Unknown CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 58-year-old male presents with fatigue and microcytic anemia. He denies overt bleeding but reports occasional dark stools. Colonoscopy reveals the image shown. Biopsies confirm adenocarcinoma. What is the MOST appropriate next investigation to stage the cancer?

A. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) level
B. Endoscopic ultrasound
C. MRI of the abdomen and pelvis
D. CT scan of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis
E. PET-CT scan
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CT, ultrasonography, SPECT and scintigraphy of intra-thyroid parathyroid adenoma
Image by Mnahi Bin Saeedan, Ibtisam Musallam Aljohani, Ayman Omar Khushaim, Salwa Qasim Bukhari, Salahudin Tayeb Elnaas CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 62-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner complaining of fatigue, bone pain, and constipation for the past several months. She denies any significant past medical history. Initial laboratory investigations reveal an elevated serum calcium level of 3.1 mmol/L (reference range: 2.1-2.6 mmol/L) and an elevated parathyroid hormone (PTH) level of 180 pg/mL (reference range: 10-65 pg/mL). A 24-hour urine calcium excretion is also elevated. The patient is referred for further imaging, the results of which are shown. Based on the available information, what is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Surgical excision of the identified lesion
B. Vitamin D supplementation
C. Cinacalcet administration
D. Initiation of bisphosphonate therapy
E. Observation with serial calcium and PTH monitoring
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PET-CT of a tuberculoma
Image by Annemie Snoeckx, Pieter Reyntiens, Damien Desbuquoit, Maarten J. Spinhoven, Paul E. Van Schil, Jan P. van Meerbeeck, Paul M. Parizel CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 28-year-old female presents with a chronic cough and fatigue. She has no significant past medical history. A chest PET-CT was performed as part of her workup. The axial view is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management, considering the image and her presentation?

A. Bronchoscopy with biopsy
B. Referral for surgical resection
C. Initiate a trial of inhaled corticosteroids
D. Empiric antibiotics for community-acquired pneumonia
E. Repeat PET-CT in 3 months
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Ileitis terminalis bei langjaehrigem Morbus Crohn 63W - CT und MRT - 001
Image by Hellerhoff CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 28-year-old male with Crohn's presents with increased abdominal pain, non-bloody diarrhea, and fatigue for 3 weeks. He denies fever. Exam shows mild RLQ tenderness. Labs show elevated CRP. Imaging is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A. Prescribe a 5-ASA enema
B. Start a course of oral corticosteroids
C. Increase the dose of his current mesalamine
D. Order a stool culture to rule out infection
E. Initiate anti-TNF therapy
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CT, ultrasonography, SPECT and scintigraphy of intra-thyroid parathyroid adenoma
Image by Mnahi Bin Saeedan, Ibtisam Musallam Aljohani, Ayman Omar Khushaim, Salwa Qasim Bukhari, Salahudin Tayeb Elnaas CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 62-year-old woman presents with fatigue, constipation, and bone pain. Serum calcium is elevated. The provided imaging was obtained. What is the MOST likely underlying cause of her presentation?

A. Parathyroid adenoma
B. Multiple myeloma
C. Thyroid carcinoma
D. Metastatic bone disease
E. Vitamin D deficiency
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PET-CT of a tuberculoma
Image by Annemie Snoeckx, Pieter Reyntiens, Damien Desbuquoit, Maarten J. Spinhoven, Paul E. Van Schil, Jan P. van Meerbeeck, Paul M. Parizel CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 28-year-old male presents with a persistent cough and fatigue. A PET-CT scan was performed. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

A. Lung abscess
B. Pneumocystis pneumonia
C. Aspergilloma
D. Bronchogenic carcinoma
E. Tuberculoma
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A 55-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 3-month history of fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath on exertion. She has a history of menorrhagia. On examination, she appears pale and has conjunctival pallor. Blood tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 70 fL, and low serum ferritin. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Arrange for a blood transfusion
B. Refer for a colonoscopy
C. Prescribe erythropoietin
D. Start oral iron supplementation
E. Order a bone marrow biopsy
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A 52-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with fatigue, increased thirst, and frequent urination over the past three months. She has a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia, for which she takes lisinopril and atorvastatin. Her BMI is 32 kg/m². On examination, her blood pressure is 140/85 mmHg, and her heart rate is 78 bpm. Laboratory tests reveal a fasting plasma glucose of 8.5 mmol/L and an HbA1c of 7.2%. She is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management step for this patient according to Australian guidelines?

A. Lifestyle modification including diet and exercise
B. Commencement of insulin therapy
C. Initiation of metformin therapy
D. Referral to an endocrinologist
E. Addition of a sulfonylurea
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Neuroblastoma, CT of the abdomen
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A 3-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with a one-week history of abdominal pain, decreased appetite, and irritability. His parents also report that he has been increasingly tired and pale. On examination, the child is noted to have a palpable abdominal mass. A CT scan of the abdomen is performed, the axial view is shown. Based on the image and clinical presentation, which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Surgical resection of the mass
B. Measurement of urine vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) and homovanillic acid (HVA) levels
C. Referral for immediate liver biopsy
D. Observation with serial abdominal examinations
E. Initiation of broad-spectrum antibiotics
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Endoscopy image of colon adenocarcinoma in sigmoid colon.
Image by Unknown CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 65-year-old male presents with fatigue and occult blood in stool. Colonoscopy reveals the lesion shown. Biopsy confirms adenocarcinoma. What is the MOST appropriate next investigation to determine disease stage?

A. MRI of abdomen
B. CEA level
C. PET scan
D. CT scan of abdomen and pelvis
E. Endoscopic ultrasound
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A 45-year-old woman presents with fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance. On examination, she has dry skin and a delayed relaxation phase of deep tendon reflexes. Her TSH level is elevated, and free T4 is low. What is the most appropriate treatment for her condition?

A. Radioactive iodine therapy
B. Methimazole
C. Beta-blockers
D. Levothyroxine
E. Surgical thyroidectomy
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A 65-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension presents with exertional dyspnea and fatigue. His physical examination reveals a blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg, a heart rate of 88 bpm, and a soft S4 gallop. There is no peripheral edema. An electrocardiogram shows left ventricular hypertrophy with repolarization abnormalities. Which of the following diagnostic tests would be most appropriate to evaluate for underlying coronary artery disease in this patient?

A. Coronary angiography
B. Cardiac MRI
C. 24-hour Holter monitoring
D. Transthoracic echocardiography without stress
E. Exercise stress echocardiography
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A 68-year-old man with a history of hypertension and coronary artery disease presents to the emergency department with worsening shortness of breath and fatigue over the past week. On examination, he has elevated jugular venous pressure, bilateral lung crackles, and peripheral edema. An echocardiogram reveals reduced ejection fraction and dilated ventricles. Which of the following best explains the pathophysiological mechanism leading to his symptoms?

A. Increased peripheral resistance leading to left ventricular hypertrophy
B. Decreased venous return causing systemic hypotension
C. Enhanced myocardial contractility resulting in fluid retention
D. Decreased cardiac output leading to activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
E. Increased cardiac output causing pulmonary congestion
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A 72-year-old man with a history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation presents to the emergency department with worsening shortness of breath and fatigue over the past two weeks. He reports occasional palpitations but denies chest pain or syncope. On examination, his blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, heart rate is 130 bpm (irregularly irregular), respiratory rate is 22 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation is 94% on room air. Jugular venous pressure is elevated, and there are bilateral lung crackles. An ECG shows atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular response. An echocardiogram reveals moderate mitral regurgitation and left atrial enlargement. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management step?

A. Initiation of antiarrhythmic therapy with amiodarone
B. Rate control with intravenous diltiazem
C. Immediate electrical cardioversion
D. Initiation of oral anticoagulation
E. Referral for mitral valve surgery
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a 2-week history of fatigue, joint pain, and a facial rash that worsens with sun exposure. She also reports hair loss and oral ulcers. Laboratory tests reveal anemia, leukopenia, and positive antinuclear antibodies (ANA). What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
B. Sjogren's syndrome
C. Psoriatic arthritis
D. Rheumatoid arthritis
E. Dermatomyositis
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A 45-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a 3-month history of fatigue, weight gain, and feeling cold all the time. She also reports constipation and dry skin. On examination, her heart rate is 55 bpm, and she has a delayed relaxation phase of her deep tendon reflexes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Chronic fatigue syndrome
B. Iron deficiency anemia
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Cushing's syndrome
E. Depression
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A 60-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 3-month history of increasing fatigue and joint pain, particularly in her hands and knees. She also reports morning stiffness lasting over an hour. On examination, there is swelling and tenderness in the metacarpophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints. Blood tests reveal a positive rheumatoid factor and elevated C-reactive protein. What is the most appropriate initial treatment for her condition?

A. Hydroxychloroquine
B. Prednisone
C. Sulfasalazine
D. Methotrexate
E. Ibuprofen
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A 70-year-old woman with a history of hypertension presents with fatigue, shortness of breath, and bilateral leg swelling. Echocardiography shows an ejection fraction of 30%. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?

A. Calcium channel blocker
B. Nitrate therapy
C. ACE inhibitor and beta-blocker
D. Digoxin
E. Diuretic therapy alone
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A 35-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 3-month history of fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats. He has no significant past medical history and does not take any medications. On examination, he has palpable cervical and axillary lymphadenopathy. A lymph node biopsy reveals Reed-Sternberg cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Hodgkin's lymphoma
D. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
E. Tuberculosis
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A 55-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 3-month history of fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats. He has no significant past medical history. On examination, he has palpable lymphadenopathy in the cervical and axillary regions. Blood tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL, white blood cell count of 15,000/mm³ with a predominance of lymphocytes, and a platelet count of 150,000/mm³. A lymph node biopsy is performed, showing small lymphocytic lymphoma. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

A. Surgical excision of lymph nodes
B. Observation and regular follow-up
C. Immediate chemotherapy
D. Radiation therapy to affected lymph nodes
E. Initiation of corticosteroids
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Endoscopy image of colon adenocarcinoma in sigmoid colon.
Image by Unknown CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 58-year-old male presents with fatigue and iron deficiency anemia. Colonoscopy reveals the image shown. Biopsies are taken. Assuming pathology confirms malignancy, what is the MOST appropriate next investigation to determine disease stage?

A. CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis
B. PET-CT scan
C. Endoscopic ultrasound
D. MRI of the abdomen and pelvis
E. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) level
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A 52-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with fatigue, increased thirst, and frequent urination over the past three months. She has a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia, managed with lisinopril and atorvastatin. Her BMI is 32 kg/m². On examination, her blood pressure is 140/85 mmHg, and her heart rate is 78 bpm. Laboratory tests reveal a fasting plasma glucose of 8.5 mmol/L and an HbA1c of 7.2%. She is concerned about her risk of complications and asks about the best initial management strategy. Considering Australian guidelines, what is the most appropriate next step in managing her condition?

A. Initiate metformin therapy
B. Advise lifestyle modifications only
C. Prescribe a sulfonylurea
D. Refer to an endocrinologist immediately
E. Start insulin therapy
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A 30-year-old woman presents to her GP with fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance over the past 6 months. She also reports constipation and dry skin. On examination, she has a slightly enlarged, non-tender thyroid gland. Her TSH level is elevated, and free T4 is low. What is the most appropriate treatment for this condition?

A. Radioactive iodine therapy
B. Levothyroxine
C. Methimazole
D. Beta-blockers
E. Thyroidectomy
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A 60-year-old man presents to his GP with a 3-month history of fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats. He has a history of smoking and hypertension. On examination, he has palpable lymphadenopathy in the cervical and axillary regions. Blood tests reveal anemia and elevated lactate dehydrogenase (LDH). What is the most appropriate next step in the investigation of this patient?

A. PET scan
B. Excisional lymph node biopsy
C. CT scan of the chest and abdomen
D. Fine needle aspiration of the lymph node
E. Bone marrow biopsy
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Hepatic metastases from a gastric mixed adenoneuroendocrine carcinoma (MANEC).
Image by Hellerhoff CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 68-year-old male presents with fatigue, weight loss, and vague abdominal discomfort. His past medical history is significant for a recently diagnosed gastric mixed adenoneuroendocrine carcinoma (MANEC). A CT scan of the abdomen is performed. Based on the imaging, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Observation with serial imaging
B. Palliative chemotherapy
C. Liver transplantation
D. Radiofrequency ablation of liver lesions
E. Surgical resection of the primary tumor
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PET-CT of a tuberculoma
Image by Annemie Snoeckx, Pieter Reyntiens, Damien Desbuquoit, Maarten J. Spinhoven, Paul E. Van Schil, Jan P. van Meerbeeck, Paul M. Parizel CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 45-year-old male, who recently immigrated from India, presents to his primary care physician with a two-month history of progressive fatigue, unintentional weight loss of 7 kg, and intermittent night sweats. He denies any cough, chest pain, or shortness of breath. He has no significant past medical history and is not currently taking any medications. Physical examination reveals normal vital signs, including a temperature of 37.1°C, and clear breath sounds bilaterally. However, mild cervical lymphadenopathy is noted. Initial laboratory investigations, including a complete blood count and comprehensive metabolic panel, are unremarkable. A chest X-ray reveals a solitary pulmonary nodule in the right upper lobe, which prompts a PET-CT scan for further evaluation. An axial slice from the PET-CT is shown. Given the patient's clinical presentation, immigration history, and the PET-CT findings, which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in establishing a definitive diagnosis?

A. Bronchoscopy with transbronchial needle aspiration of the lesion
B. Administer a purified protein derivative (PPD) skin test
C. Order a CT-guided percutaneous needle biopsy of the lung nodule
D. Repeat PET-CT scan in three months to assess for interval growth
E. Initiate empiric antibiotic therapy with a broad-spectrum antibiotic
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A 58-year-old farmer presents with a 10-day history of fever, severe retro-orbital headache, myalgia, and profound fatigue. He denies cough or sore throat. Examination reveals mild scleral icterus. Liver function tests show elevated transaminases. He works closely with sheep and cattle. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Influenza
B. Leptospirosis
C. Brucellosis
D. Viral hepatitis A
E. Q fever
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CT, ultrasonography, SPECT and scintigraphy of intra-thyroid parathyroid adenoma
Image by Mnahi Bin Saeedan, Ibtisam Musallam Aljohani, Ayman Omar Khushaim, Salwa Qasim Bukhari, Salahudin Tayeb Elnaas CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 62-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner complaining of fatigue, bone pain, and constipation for the past several months. She denies any significant past medical history and her vital signs are stable. Initial laboratory investigations reveal an elevated serum calcium level of 3.1 mmol/L (reference range: 2.1-2.6 mmol/L) and an elevated parathyroid hormone (PTH) level of 180 pg/mL (reference range: 10-65 pg/mL). A 24-hour urine calcium excretion is also elevated. The patient is referred for further imaging, the results of which are shown. Based on the available information, what is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Referral for surgical parathyroidectomy
B. Order a DEXA scan to assess bone mineral density
C. Initiate medical management with cinacalcet
D. Repeat parathyroid hormone and calcium levels in 3 months
E. Prescribe bisphosphonates to reduce bone resorption
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PET-CT of a tuberculoma
Image by Annemie Snoeckx, Pieter Reyntiens, Damien Desbuquoit, Maarten J. Spinhoven, Paul E. Van Schil, Jan P. van Meerbeeck, Paul M. Parizel CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 35-year-old male presents with a two-month history of fatigue, unintentional weight loss, and a persistent dry cough. He denies fever or night sweats. A PET-CT scan of the chest was performed (image shown). What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Repeat PET-CT in 3 months
B. Initiate anti-tuberculosis therapy
C. Bronchoscopy with biopsy
D. Empiric antibiotic therapy
E. Sputum culture for bacterial pathogens
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A 25-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 2-week history of fatigue, sore throat, and swollen glands. She also reports a low-grade fever and mild headache. On examination, she has cervical lymphadenopathy and mild splenomegaly. A monospot test is positive. What is the most appropriate advice regarding her physical activity?

A. Engage in light exercise to improve symptoms
B. Resume normal activities immediately
C. Start a course of corticosteroids to reduce symptoms
D. Avoid all physical activity for 6 months
E. Avoid contact sports for at least 4 weeks
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A 28-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a 2-week history of fatigue, joint pain, and a facial rash that worsens with sun exposure. She also reports hair loss and oral ulcers. On examination, she has a malar rash and mild swelling in her hands. Laboratory tests reveal a positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) test and elevated anti-double-stranded DNA antibodies. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
B. Dermatomyositis
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Psoriatic arthritis
E. Sjögren's syndrome
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