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dysphagia

Practice targeted AMC-style multiple-choice questions on dysphagia.

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An 85-year-old man from a nursing home presents with new confusion, mild cough, and temperature 37.9°C. Chest X-ray shows a right lower lobe infiltrate. He has dysphagia. Considering his presentation and risk factors, which initial antibiotic regimen is most appropriate?

A. Ceftriaxone
B. Azithromycin
C. Amoxicillin-clavulanate
D. Doxycycline
E. Amoxicillin
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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 75-year-old male presents with worsening dysphagia. An X-ray is performed (shown). What is the most appropriate initial investigation?

A. Esophageal manometry
B. 24-hour pH monitoring
C. Upper endoscopy
D. CT chest
E. Barium swallow
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Giant hiatal hernia, CT image. 63 year old man.
Image by Jmarchn CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 63-year-old man presents to his GP with a 6-month history of intermittent postprandial fullness and mild dysphagia, particularly with solid foods. He reports occasional regurgitation but denies significant heartburn or chest pain. His vital signs are stable, and physical examination is unremarkable. Recent blood tests show mild iron deficiency anaemia. The provided image is from a CT scan of the chest and upper abdomen performed as part of his investigation. Considering the clinical presentation and the significant anatomical finding demonstrated in the image, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Order a barium swallow study
B. Initiate high-dose proton pump inhibitor therapy
C. Referral for surgical assessment and repair
D. Perform an urgent upper endoscopy
E. Advise watchful waiting and lifestyle modifications
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Giant hiatal hernia, CT image. 63 year old man.
Image by Jmarchn CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 63-year-old man presents with dysphagia and early satiety. His BMI is 21. A CT scan is performed. Based on the image, and assuming conservative measures have failed, what surgical approach is MOST appropriate?

A. Partial gastrectomy
B. Esophagectomy
C. Endoscopic dilation
D. Laparoscopic Nissen fundoplication with hiatal hernia repair
E. Heller myotomy
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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 75-year-old presents with a 4-month history of increasing dysphagia to solids, occasional regurgitation, and chronic cough, particularly at night. He denies significant weight loss or chest pain. Past medical history includes type 2 diabetes and hypertension. Medications are metformin and perindopril. Physical examination is unremarkable. A chest X-ray is performed as part of the initial assessment. Considering the clinical presentation and the radiographic findings, which of the following investigations is most appropriate at this stage?

A. Barium swallow study
B. Oesophageal manometry
C. Oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy
D. High-resolution CT chest
E. Ambulatory ECG monitoring
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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

An 82-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with increasing shortness of breath and intermittent chest discomfort over the past week. She reports some difficulty swallowing larger food boluses recently but denies significant heartburn. Her past medical history includes hypertension and osteoarthritis. On examination, her vital signs are stable: BP 135/85 mmHg, HR 78 bpm, RR 18/min, SpO2 94% on room air, Temp 36.8°C. Auscultation of the chest reveals decreased breath sounds at the left base. A central venous catheter is noted in the right subclavian vein. Initial blood tests show a mild normocytic anaemia (Hb 105 g/L) and normal inflammatory markers. An urgent imaging study is performed. Considering the clinical presentation and the provided imaging study, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Administer intravenous diuretics for suspected acute decompensated heart failure.
B. Prepare for immediate surgical reduction and repair.
C. Initiate broad-spectrum antibiotics for suspected community-acquired pneumonia.
D. Arrange a contrast swallow study or CT scan of the chest and abdomen.
E. Prescribe a high-dose proton pump inhibitor and review in outpatient clinic.
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Hepatic metastases from a gastric mixed adenoneuroendocrine carcinoma (MANEC).
Image by Hellerhoff CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 68-year-old male presents with dysphagia and weight loss. Gastroscopy and biopsy confirm gastric adenocarcinoma. Staging CT imaging is shown. His ECOG performance status is 1. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the provided images, what is the most appropriate initial management strategy for this patient?

A. Proceed with total gastrectomy and D2 lymphadenectomy
B. Refer for liver transplantation assessment
C. Plan palliative radiotherapy to the gastric primary
D. Initiate systemic chemotherapy
E. Consider transarterial chemoembolisation for hepatic lesions
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Giant hiatal hernia, CT image. 63 year old man.
Image by Jmarchn CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 63-year-old male with a history of mild dysphagia and iron deficiency anemia presents for further evaluation. He denies any recent weight loss or hematemesis. An abdominal CT scan with contrast is performed, the axial view is shown. What is the MOST likely underlying cause of his anemia?

A. Angiodysplasia
B. Cameron lesions
C. Gastric malignancy
D. Duodenal ulcer
E. Esophageal varices
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Giant hiatal hernia, CT image. 63 year old man.
Image by Jmarchn CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 68-year-old male presents to his general practitioner with a three-month history of progressive dysphagia to both solids and liquids, accompanied by postprandial regurgitation. He also reports experiencing early satiety and occasional episodes of nocturnal coughing. His past medical history is significant for well-controlled hypertension and a remote history of smoking (quit 20 years ago). Physical examination reveals mild epigastric fullness, but is otherwise unremarkable. His vital signs are within normal limits. An abdominal CT scan with contrast was performed, and a representative image is shown. Given the clinical presentation and the findings on the image, which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Referral to a gastroenterologist for surgical evaluation
B. Esophageal manometry to evaluate esophageal motility
C. Empiric treatment with antibiotics for possible aspiration pneumonia
D. Initiation of a proton pump inhibitor and lifestyle modifications
E. Barium swallow study to further delineate the anatomy
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Giant hiatal hernia, CT image. 63 year old man.
Image by Jmarchn CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 63-year-old man presents with dysphagia and epigastric discomfort. A CT scan is performed, as shown. What is the MOST likely long-term complication?

A. Pneumonia
B. Barrett's esophagus
C. Iron deficiency anemia
D. Gastric volvulus
E. Esophageal stricture
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Hepatic metastases from a gastric mixed adenoneuroendocrine carcinoma (MANEC).
Image by Hellerhoff CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 68-year-old man presents with a 3-month history of progressive dysphagia, early satiety, and unintentional weight loss of 8 kg. He has a background of well-controlled hypertension. Physical examination reveals mild epigastric tenderness. Initial blood tests show a normocytic anaemia. An urgent upper endoscopy identified a large, ulcerated mass in the gastric body, and biopsies were taken. A staging CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis was subsequently performed. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the provided imaging, which of the following statements best reflects the likely prognosis and primary management strategy for this patient?

A. Curative surgical resection of the gastric mass is the priority, followed by adjuvant chemotherapy.
B. The findings suggest a benign process, and symptomatic management is sufficient.
C. Liver transplantation should be considered given the extent of hepatic involvement.
D. The disease is likely incurable, and management will primarily focus on systemic therapy and palliative care.
E. Further investigation with a PET-CT scan is mandatory before determining the management plan.
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Giant hiatal hernia, CT image. 63 year old man.
Image by Jmarchn CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 63-year-old man presents to his general practitioner with a several-year history of worsening symptoms. He describes significant heartburn and regurgitation, particularly when lying down, which is only partially relieved by high-dose proton pump inhibitors. He has also noticed increasing difficulty swallowing solid food and occasionally liquids, sometimes accompanied by coughing fits after eating. He reports feeling full very quickly after starting a meal and has lost approximately 5 kg unintentionally over the past year. His past medical history includes osteoarthritis and benign prostatic hyperplasia. He is a non-smoker and drinks alcohol occasionally. Physical examination is unremarkable. Routine blood tests, including full blood count, electrolytes, and liver function tests, are within normal limits. A CT scan of the chest and upper abdomen was performed as part of the workup for his symptoms, and a representative axial image is shown. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the image, which of the following represents the MOST appropriate definitive management strategy for this patient?

A. Referral for a barium swallow study and oesophageal manometry.
B. Long-term, high-dose proton pump inhibitor therapy and dietary modifications.
C. Endoscopic balloon dilation of the oesophagus.
D. Placement of a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube for nutritional support.
E. Laparoscopic repair of the diaphragmatic defect with fundoplication and mesh reinforcement.
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Giant hiatal hernia, CT image. 63 year old man.
Image by Jmarchn CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 63-year-old man presents to his GP with a 6-month history of intermittent postprandial fullness and mild dysphagia, particularly with solid foods. He reports occasional regurgitation but denies significant heartburn or chest pain. His vital signs are stable, and physical examination is unremarkable. Recent blood tests show mild iron deficiency anaemia. The provided image is from a CT scan of the chest and upper abdomen performed as part of his investigation. Considering the clinical presentation and the significant anatomical finding demonstrated in the image, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Schedule regular clinical follow-up and repeat imaging in 12 months.
B. Arrange for upper gastrointestinal endoscopy with biopsies.
C. Referral for surgical assessment and repair.
D. Initiate high-dose proton pump inhibitor therapy and review in 3 months.
E. Advise dietary modification, elevation of the head of the bed, and weight loss.
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A 45-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 3-month history of progressive difficulty swallowing both solids and liquids. He also reports regurgitation of undigested food and occasional chest pain. He has lost 5 kg over this period. On examination, there are no abnormalities noted. A barium swallow study shows a 'bird-beak' appearance of the lower esophagus. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
B. Achalasia
C. Diffuse esophageal spasm
D. Esophageal stricture
E. Esophageal cancer
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A 60-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 6-month history of progressive difficulty in swallowing both solids and liquids. He also reports unintentional weight loss and occasional regurgitation of undigested food. On examination, there is no lymphadenopathy or abdominal masses. A barium swallow study shows a 'bird-beak' appearance of the lower esophagus. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Hiatal hernia
B. Esophageal stricture
C. Achalasia
D. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
E. Esophageal cancer
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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 78-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of intermittent upper abdominal pain radiating to the chest and mild dysphagia. He denies shortness of breath or fever. Vital signs are stable. A chest X-ray is obtained. Considering the radiographic findings in the context of the patient's presentation, what is the most appropriate immediate management plan?

A. Admit for observation and serial cardiac enzymes.
B. Perform a bedside echocardiogram to assess cardiac function.
C. Order a contrast-enhanced CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis.
D. Referral for urgent surgical consultation.
E. Initiate high-dose proton pump inhibitor therapy and arrange outpatient follow-up.
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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

An 82-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with increasing shortness of breath and intermittent chest discomfort over the past week. She reports some difficulty swallowing larger food boluses recently but denies significant heartburn. Her past medical history includes hypertension and osteoarthritis. On examination, her vital signs are stable: BP 135/85 mmHg, HR 78 bpm, RR 18/min, SpO2 94% on room air, Temp 36.8°C. Auscultation of the chest reveals decreased breath sounds at the left base. A central venous catheter is noted in the right subclavian vein. Initial blood tests show a mild normocytic anaemia (Hb 105 g/L) and normal inflammatory markers. An urgent imaging study is performed. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings on the imaging study, which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of the patient's anaemia?

A. Chronic mucosal erosion within the displaced viscus
B. Vitamin B12 deficiency secondary to impaired absorption from dysphagia
C. Anaemia of chronic disease exacerbated by her underlying osteoarthritis
D. Acute blood loss from a peptic ulcer distal to the pylorus
E. Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia associated with the indwelling central venous catheter
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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 68-year-old male with a history of GERD presents with worsening dysphagia and nocturnal cough. An X-ray is performed. Which of the following is the MOST likely underlying mechanism contributing to the patient's dysphagia?

A. Inflammation of the esophageal mucosa
B. Gastric acid hypersecretion
C. Esophageal dysmotility secondary to vagal nerve damage
D. Mechanical obstruction due to esophageal compression
E. Decreased lower esophageal sphincter tone
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Giant hiatal hernia, CT image. 63 year old man.
Image by Jmarchn CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 63-year-old man presents to his GP with a 6-month history of intermittent postprandial fullness and mild dysphagia, particularly with solid foods. He reports occasional regurgitation but denies significant heartburn or chest pain. His vital signs are stable, and physical examination is unremarkable. Recent blood tests show mild iron deficiency anaemia. The provided image is from a CT scan of the chest and upper abdomen performed as part of his investigation. Considering the clinical presentation and the significant anatomical finding demonstrated in the image, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Urgent upper gastrointestinal endoscopy to assess for malignancy.
B. Initiation of high-dose proton pump inhibitor therapy.
C. Prescription of iron supplements and dietary advice.
D. Barium swallow study to further characterise the anatomy.
E. Referral for surgical assessment and consideration of operative repair.
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