management

A 3-year-old child is brought to the GP by their parents who are worried about the appearance of their child's abdomen, as shown in the image. The child is otherwise well, active, and has no pain, vomiting, or changes in bowel habits. On examination, the finding is soft and easily reducible. Vital signs are normal. Based on this presentation and the image, what is the most appropriate initial management?

A 64-year-old woman presents for review in the outpatient clinic. She reports a history of intermittent, self-resolving episodes of right upper quadrant colicky pain over the past year, but is currently asymptomatic. She denies fever, jaundice, or other systemic symptoms. Her physical examination is unremarkable, and recent liver function tests are within the normal reference range. An elective abdominal ultrasound was performed, yielding the image shown. Based on the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated, what is the most appropriate next step in her management?

A 3-year-old child is presented to the general practitioner by their parents who are concerned about the appearance of their child's umbilicus, as depicted in the accompanying image. The child is reported to be entirely asymptomatic, feeding and playing normally, with no history of pain, discomfort, or vomiting. Physical examination reveals normal vital signs and a soft, non-tender abdomen with no signs of obstruction. Considering the clinical presentation and the finding shown, what is the most appropriate initial management plan for this child?

A 62-year-old woman presents with fatigue, bone pain, and constipation. Laboratory tests reveal serum calcium 3.1 mmol/L, PTH 180 pg/mL, and elevated 24-hour urine calcium. Imaging studies are shown. Considering the clinical presentation and investigation findings, what is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 68-year-old former smoker with a 30 pack-year history presents to their GP with a 2-month history of persistent cough and increasing fatigue, noting a 3kg unintentional weight loss. Physical examination is unremarkable, and vital signs are stable. Routine blood tests, including full blood count and inflammatory markers, are within normal limits. A chest X-ray reveals a solitary pulmonary nodule in the right upper lobe. Subsequent PET-CT imaging is performed as part of the diagnostic workup. Considering the findings demonstrated in the image provided in the context of this patient's presentation, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 62-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner complaining of fatigue, bone pain, and constipation for the past several months. She denies any significant past medical history. Initial laboratory investigations reveal an elevated serum calcium level of 3.1 mmol/L (reference range: 2.1-2.6 mmol/L) and an elevated parathyroid hormone (PTH) level of 180 pg/mL (reference range: 10-65 pg/mL). A 24-hour urine calcium excretion is also elevated. The patient is referred for further imaging, the results of which are shown. Based on the available information, what is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 55-year-old patient with a history of solid organ transplant on immunosuppressive therapy presents with a 2-week history of low-grade fever, malaise, and dull right upper quadrant discomfort. Physical examination is unremarkable except for mild tenderness in the right upper quadrant. Blood tests reveal a CRP of 85 mg/L (normal <5), WCC 11.5 x 10^9/L (normal 4-11), and mildly elevated alkaline phosphatase. Imaging is performed as shown. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 55-year-old renal transplant recipient on long-term immunosuppression presents with a 2-week history of low-grade fever, malaise, and dull right upper quadrant discomfort. Physical exam is unremarkable except for mild tenderness. Labs show mild leucocytosis and elevated CRP. Imaging is shown. Based on these findings, what is the most appropriate immediate management step?

A 55-year-old man presents to his GP with a lesion on his nose that he first noticed about 6 months ago. It has gradually increased in size but is not painful or itchy. He has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medications. On examination, vital signs are stable. The image shows the lesion. Based on the appearance of this lesion, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 58-year-old non-smoker presents with a 4-month history of intermittent fever, night sweats, and a persistent cough productive of small amounts of sputum. He recently emigrated from a region with a high prevalence of tuberculosis. Physical examination is unremarkable. Chest X-ray reveals a solitary nodule in the right upper lobe. A PET-CT scan is performed as part of the investigation. Considering the findings demonstrated in the image provided in the context of this patient's presentation, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 3-year-old boy presents with sudden onset, intermittent, severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and lethargy. On examination, he is pale and has a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. Vitals are stable. An ultrasound is performed, shown above. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings in the image, what is the most appropriate initial management step?

A 3-year-old boy presents with a 12-hour history of intermittent, severe abdominal pain, non-bilious vomiting, and decreased activity. Parents report redcurrant jelly stool. On exam, a palpable mass is noted. Vitals are stable. An ultrasound is performed (shown above). Considering the clinical picture and the image findings, which non-surgical intervention is indicated?

A 1-year-old child presents to the GP with parental concern about a bulge on the abdomen, as shown in the image. The child is asymptomatic, feeding well, and has normal bowel movements. Examination reveals a soft, reducible finding at the umbilicus; the abdomen is non-tender with normal bowel sounds. Based on this presentation and the image, what is the most appropriate initial management?

A 62-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner complaining of fatigue, bone pain, and constipation for the past several months. She denies any significant past medical history. Her vital signs are stable. Initial laboratory investigations reveal an elevated serum calcium level of 3.1 mmol/L (reference range: 2.1-2.6 mmol/L) and an elevated parathyroid hormone (PTH) level of 180 pg/mL (reference range: 10-65 pg/mL). A 24-hour urine calcium excretion is also elevated. The patient is referred for further imaging, the results of which are shown. Based on the available information, what is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 65-year-old woman presents with a several-month history of a slowly enlarging, mildly pruritic skin lesion on her left chest wall. She underwent a simple mastectomy on the left side for invasive ductal carcinoma 8 years ago. She denies systemic symptoms. Physical examination reveals the appearance shown. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 70-80 year old lady being treated for pulmonary embolism with a therapeutic dose of subcutaneous Enoxaparin is found to have multiple new pulmonary emboli. What is the most appropriate next step?

A 55-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of a long-standing, intermittent swelling in his right groin that becomes more noticeable when he coughs or lifts heavy objects. It is usually painless and he can push it back in. His vital signs are normal. Considering the clinical presentation and the appearance shown, what is the most appropriate initial management?

A 70-year-old male undergoes a CT scan for investigation of chronic back pain. He has no history of abdominal pain or pulsatile mass. His blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg. The image provided is an axial view from this scan. Based on this finding and the patient's clinical status, what is the most appropriate next step in management according to current guidelines?

A 72-year-old male presents with a 4-month history of increasing constipation and occasional streaks of blood on stool. He denies significant weight loss. Physical exam is unremarkable. A colonoscopy was performed, and the image is shown. Biopsies are taken from the lesion. Assuming the biopsy confirms adenocarcinoma, what is the MOST appropriate initial investigation to guide further management?

Mrs. Eleanor Vance, a 62-year-old retired teacher, presents for her routine biennial screening mammogram through the BreastScreen Australia program. She has no personal history of breast disease, and her family history is negative for breast or ovarian cancer in first-degree relatives. She is otherwise healthy, with a history of diet-controlled type 2 diabetes and osteoarthritis managed with paracetamol. She denies any breast pain, lumps, nipple discharge, or skin changes. Her last mammogram two years ago was reported as normal (BIRADS 1). Physical examination of both breasts and axillae is unremarkable. The current screening mammogram is performed. The image provided is a magnified view from the craniocaudal projection of the left breast, specifically highlighting an area that has been flagged for further assessment by the reporting radiologist due to a change from the previous study. Based on the clinical presentation, the patient's history, and the specific finding demonstrated in the provided image from her screening mammogram, what is the most appropriate immediate next step in the management pathway for this patient?

A 65-year-old male with known cirrhosis secondary to chronic hepatitis B presents with increasing abdominal distension and fatigue. He has mild ascites. Liver function tests show bilirubin 35 umol/L, INR 1.3, albumin 30 g/L. AFP is 850 ng/mL. Imaging is performed as shown. Based on the imaging findings and clinical presentation, which of the following treatment modalities is MOST likely to be considered for this patient?

An asymptomatic 70-year-old male undergoes a CT scan of the abdomen as part of an investigation for mild, intermittent lower back pain. His vital signs are stable, and physical examination is unremarkable. Considering the findings on the provided image, what is the most appropriate next step in this patient's management?

A 63-year-old man presents to his GP with a 6-month history of intermittent postprandial fullness and mild dysphagia, particularly with solid foods. He reports occasional regurgitation but denies significant heartburn or chest pain. His vital signs are stable, and physical examination is unremarkable. Recent blood tests show mild iron deficiency anaemia. The provided image is from a CT scan of the chest and upper abdomen performed as part of his investigation. Considering the clinical presentation and the significant anatomical finding demonstrated in the image, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A middle-aged man with a 20% estimated cardiovascular risk is already on lifestyle modifications and statin therapy. Which of the following investigations can help further assess or reclassify his cardiovascular risk?