Practice targeted AMC-style multiple-choice questions on pediatrics.
A 3-year-old child is brought to the paediatric clinic by their parents due to a 2-month history of increasing abdominal distension, poor appetite, and occasional constipation. On physical examination, a firm, irregular mass is palpable in the upper abdomen, crossing the midline. Vital signs are stable. Initial blood tests, including full blood count and liver function tests, are within normal limits. An abdominal CT scan is performed (image provided). Considering the findings demonstrated in the image, which of the following investigations represents the most appropriate next step in establishing a definitive diagnosis and guiding further management?
A 4-year-old boy presents with a 3-week history of decreased appetite, lethargy, and intermittent abdominal pain. His parents note his abdomen seems larger. Vitals are stable. On examination, a firm, irregular mass is palpable in the upper abdomen. Blood work shows mild anaemia. The provided image is an axial CT slice of the abdomen. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the image, which of the following investigations is the MOST appropriate initial step to support the suspected diagnosis?
A 10-year-old boy is brought to the GP by his parents, who report difficulties with attention and hyperactivity at school and home for the past 6 months. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial step in managing this child?
A 3-year-old boy presents with intermittent abdominal pain, vomiting, and bloody stools. An ultrasound is performed, the image is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A 3-year-old boy presents with sudden onset, intermittent, severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and lethargy. On examination, he is pale and has a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. Vitals are stable. An ultrasound is performed, shown above. Based on the clinical presentation and the provided image, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A 3-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents due to a high fever and irritability. He has had a runny nose and cough for the past two days. On examination, he is lethargic and has a bulging fontanelle. A lumbar puncture is performed, and the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis shows elevated protein, low glucose, and a high white cell count with a predominance of neutrophils. What is the most likely diagnosis?
For which condition is predictive genetic testing in an asymptomatic minor generally *not* recommended?
A 10-year-old presents with a sore throat, fever, and fatigue for 2 days. Examination reveals tonsillar exudates and tender anterior cervical lymph nodes. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
A 6-week-old male presents with projectile vomiting after feeds. He is otherwise well-appearing, with normal vital signs and no abdominal distension. An ultrasound was performed, and an image is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?
A previously well 3-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with a 12-hour history of sudden onset, intermittent, severe, colicky abdominal pain, associated with non-bilious vomiting. Between episodes, he appears lethargic and pale. His vital signs are stable: HR 110, BP 90/60, RR 24, Temp 37.2. Abdominal examination reveals mild distension and tenderness, but no guarding or rebound. Bowel sounds are present. A point-of-care ultrasound is performed by the emergency physician. Considering the clinical presentation, the patient's current stable vital signs, and the specific findings demonstrated in the provided ultrasound image, which of the following represents the single most appropriate immediate next step in the management of this patient in an Australian tertiary paediatric centre?
A 3-year-old child is presented to the general practitioner by their parents who are concerned about the appearance of their child's umbilicus, as depicted in the accompanying image. The child is reported to be entirely asymptomatic, feeding and playing normally, with no history of pain, discomfort, or vomiting. Physical examination reveals normal vital signs and a soft, non-tender abdomen with no signs of obstruction. Considering the clinical presentation and the finding shown, what is the most appropriate initial management plan for this child?
A 3-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with a 12-hour history of sudden onset, severe, colicky abdominal pain, drawing his legs up, and non-bilious vomiting. His parents report he has been listless between episodes and had a small amount of red jelly-like stool earlier. Vitals: T 37.2°C, HR 110, RR 24, BP 95/60, Sats 98% on air. Abdominal examination reveals tenderness in the right upper quadrant and a palpable mass. Bowel sounds are diminished. A point-of-care ultrasound is performed. Based on the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the provided ultrasound image, what is the most appropriate initial management step for this patient?
A 3-year-old boy presents with intermittent abdominal pain and vomiting. Stool examination reveals a positive occult blood test. An ultrasound is performed, as shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?
A 7-year-old boy is brought to his GP by his parents, who are concerned about his behaviour at school and at home. They report that he has difficulty paying attention in class, often fidgets and squirms in his seat, and frequently interrupts others. At home, he struggles to follow instructions, loses things easily, and seems forgetful. The teacher has also noted that he has difficulty staying on task and often blurts out answers before the question is finished. The parents deny any history of significant medical illness or developmental delay. On examination, the boy appears energetic and talkative, but is cooperative with the assessment. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the evaluation of this child?
A 6-month-old infant is brought to the general practitioner by his parents, who are concerned about a persistent, itchy rash. The rash initially appeared on his cheeks and scalp a few weeks ago and has now spread to his trunk and extensor surfaces of his arms and legs. The parents report that the infant is constantly scratching, which disrupts his sleep. He has no known allergies, and there is no family history of asthma or allergic rhinitis. On examination, the infant is alert and active. There are erythematous, papular lesions with areas of weeping and crusting on his cheeks, scalp, trunk, and extensor surfaces. The skin is dry and flaky in other areas. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial management strategy for this infant's condition?
A 10-year-old presents with a sore throat, fever, and tonsillar exudates. Rapid strep test is negative. What is the MOST appropriate next step?
A 3-year-old child presents with a 2-month history of increasing abdominal distension and intermittent pain. On examination, a firm, non-tender mass is palpable in the upper abdomen. Initial blood tests reveal mild anaemia. Vital signs are stable. The provided image was obtained as part of the diagnostic evaluation. Based on the findings in the image and the clinical context, which of the following imaging modalities is most likely to provide critical information regarding potential metastatic disease, which is essential for accurate staging and treatment planning in this paediatric patient?
A 4-year-old child presents with a history of recurrent wheezing and cough, particularly at night and with exercise. What is the most appropriate long-term management strategy?
A 4-week-old male presents with non-bilious emesis. An upper GI series is performed (image shown). What acid-base abnormality is MOST likely?
A 6-week-old male infant presents with increasing frequency of non-bilious vomiting after feeds for the past week. He is otherwise well, afebrile, and has wet nappies. On examination, he is alert and interactive. Abdominal examination is unremarkable. Vitals are stable. You order an ultrasound, which is shown. Based on the clinical presentation and the provided image, what is the most appropriate immediate next step in management?
A 2-year-old with a palpable abdominal mass and periorbital ecchymoses has the shown CT. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?
A 4-year-old presents with abdominal distension and back pain for 2 months. Exam reveals a firm, fixed abdominal mass. Vitals are normal. An abdominal CT is performed (axial view shown). Which lab finding would MOST strongly support the suspected diagnosis?
A 10-year-old presents with a sore throat, fever, and tonsillar exudates. Rapid strep test is negative. What is the most appropriate next step?
A 3-year-old boy presents with sudden onset, intermittent, severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and lethargy. On examination, he is pale and has a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. Vitals are stable. An ultrasound is performed, shown above. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings in the image, what is the most appropriate initial management step?
A 6-month-old infant presents for a routine check-up. The mother reports the infant is feeding well and has normal bowel movements. On examination, the infant is active and alert with normal vital signs. The abdomen is soft and non-tender. The image shows the infant's abdomen. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
A 4-year-old child is brought to the emergency department with a 3-week history of increasing abdominal distension, intermittent pain, and decreased activity. Parents also report occasional flushing episodes and unexplained fevers. On examination, a large, firm, irregular mass is palpable in the upper abdomen, extending across the midline. Vital signs are stable, and routine blood tests, including full blood count, electrolytes, and liver function tests, are within normal limits. An abdominal CT scan is performed (image provided). Based on the findings demonstrated in the image and the clinical presentation, which of the following investigations is most critical for accurate staging and risk stratification in this likely diagnosis?
A 6-month-old baby has abdominal swelling and vomiting. An abdominal X-ray shows a 'double bubble' sign. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 3-year-old boy presents with sudden onset, intermittent, severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and lethargy. On examination, he is pale but haemodynamically stable. An abdominal ultrasound is performed. Based on the clinical presentation and the provided image, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A 3-year-old boy presents with a 12-hour history of intermittent, severe abdominal pain, drawing his legs up to his chest. He has vomited several times. His vital signs are stable: HR 110, BP 95/60, RR 24, Temp 37.2°C. On examination, he is irritable but comfortable between episodes of pain. His abdomen is soft but mildly distended. A focused abdominal ultrasound is performed, yielding the image provided. Based on the clinical presentation and the findings shown, which of the following non-surgical interventions is typically attempted first to resolve the underlying issue?
A 3-year-old child presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset of cough, wheezing, and difficulty breathing after playing with small toys. The child is in mild respiratory distress, with a respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute and oxygen saturation of 92% on room air. On auscultation, there are decreased breath sounds on the right side with wheezing. The child has no fever, and there is no history of recent illness. What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
A 2-year-old child is brought to the emergency department by their parents due to a persistent cough, wheezing, and difficulty breathing that has worsened over the past two days. The child has a known history of eczema and multiple food allergies, including peanuts and eggs. On examination, the child appears in mild respiratory distress with nasal flaring and intercostal retractions. Auscultation of the chest reveals bilateral wheezing. The child is afebrile, with a respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute, heart rate of 120 bpm, and oxygen saturation of 94% on room air. A chest X-ray shows hyperinflation but no focal consolidation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A neonate is born at term following an uneventful pregnancy. Immediately after birth, the baby develops bilious vomiting. Abdominal examination reveals epigastric distension, but the rest of the abdomen is scaphoid. An abdominal X-ray is performed. Which of the following findings on the abdominal X-ray would be most consistent with the likely diagnosis?
A 4-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents due to a persistent itchy rash on his arms and legs. The rash has been present for several weeks and seems to worsen at night. The child has a history of asthma and allergic rhinitis. On examination, there are erythematous, scaly patches with excoriations on the flexural surfaces of his arms and legs. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 6-year-old child with a history of asthma presents with increased wheezing and difficulty breathing after exposure to cold air. What is the most appropriate immediate management?
A 2-year-old boy presents with abdominal pain and vomiting. An ultrasound is performed, as shown. What is the MOST likely lead point for this condition?
A 3-year-old presents with abdominal distension and vague pain. Vitals are stable. An abdominal CT is performed (image attached). Elevated levels of HVA and VMA are noted in the urine. What is the MOST likely origin of the primary lesion?
A 3-year-old boy presents with intermittent abdominal pain and bloody stools. An ultrasound is performed. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?
A newborn has abdominal swelling and scrotal swelling. On examination, the swelling is soft and reducible. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 5-week-old male presents with non-bilious projectile vomiting after each feed for the past week. He is alert but appears dehydrated. An ultrasound is performed, as shown. What electrolyte abnormality is MOST likely present?
A 16-year-old boy is diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes mellitus after presenting with polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. His blood tests show elevated blood glucose levels and the presence of autoantibodies against pancreatic beta cells. In contrast, a 55-year-old woman is diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes mellitus, characterized by insulin resistance and obesity. Which of the following best describes the pathophysiological differences between Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes?
A 10-year-old presents with a sore throat, fever, and tonsillar exudates. Rapid strep test is negative. What is the MOST appropriate next step?
A 10-year-old boy with a known history of asthma presents to the emergency department. He developed symptoms three days after a viral upper respiratory tract infection. On examination, he is tachypnoeic (respiratory rate 48 breaths/min), tachycardic (heart rate 130 bpm), and hypoxic with an oxygen saturation of 91% on room air. He is speaking only in short phrases but remains alert and is afebrile. Auscultation reveals a widespread wheeze throughout his chest. A COVID swab performed yesterday was negative. Which investigation is the most appropriate next step in the immediate management of this patient?
A 6-month-old presents for a well-child check. The image shows the abdominal exam. Parents report it enlarges when crying. What is the most appropriate next step?
A 4-week-old male presents with persistent projectile vomiting after feeding. He is otherwise well-appearing. An upper GI series is performed, with relevant images attached. What acid-base disturbance is MOST likely present?
A previously healthy 2-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with a 1-day history of colicky abdominal pain. His parents report that the pain occurs in episodes, during which he cries intensely and pulls his legs up to his chest. Between episodes, he appears relatively comfortable. He has had one episode of vomiting. His parents also noticed a small amount of blood in his stool this morning. On examination, the child is alert but irritable. His abdomen is soft, but a palpable mass is noted in the right upper quadrant. An ultrasound is performed, with a representative image shown. What is the MOST appropriate initial management strategy?
A 3-year-old boy presents with intermittent severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and lethargy. On examination, he is afebrile with a soft but slightly distended abdomen. An ultrasound is performed (image provided). Based on the clinical presentation and the image findings, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A 3-year-old presents with abdominal distension, irritability, and periorbital ecchymosis. Examination reveals a firm, irregular abdominal mass. The provided image is an axial CT slice. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the image, which of the following biochemical markers is MOST likely to be significantly elevated?
A 3-year-old child is brought to the general practice clinic by his parents due to recurrent episodes of wheezing and cough, particularly following viral upper respiratory tract infections. The child has had multiple similar episodes over the past year, each resolving with bronchodilator therapy. There is no history of eczema or allergic rhinitis, and the family history is unremarkable for atopic conditions. On examination, the child appears well between episodes, with normal growth parameters and no signs of respiratory distress. Auscultation of the chest reveals clear lung fields without wheezes or crackles. Which of the following is the most likely underlying condition?
A 1-year-old child is brought to the emergency department with a 3-day history of cough, wheezing, and difficulty breathing. The child has a fever of 38.5°C and a runny nose. On examination, the child appears in mild respiratory distress with nasal flaring and intercostal retractions. Auscultation reveals diffuse wheezing and crackles throughout the lung fields. The child has no significant past medical history and is up to date with vaccinations. A chest X-ray shows hyperinflation but no focal consolidation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A 3-year-old boy presents with sudden onset, intermittent, severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and lethargy. His vital signs are stable. On examination, he is pale. An abdominal ultrasound is performed, shown in the image. Based on the clinical presentation and imaging findings, what is the most appropriate next step in management?