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Practice targeted AMC-style multiple-choice questions on pediatrics.

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An ultrasound showing target sign which is a characteristic finding for intussusception on ultrasound, this ultrasound is for a 3 year old boy with intestinal intussusception.
Image by Frank Gaillard CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A previously healthy 3-year-old boy presents with colicky abdominal pain and non-bilious vomiting. Physical exam reveals a palpable abdominal mass in the RUQ. An ultrasound is performed, revealing the finding shown. What is the MOST likely lead point?

A. Polyp
B. Appendix
C. Lymphoma
D. Ileocolic valve
E. Meckel's diverticulum
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Neuroblastoma, CT of the abdomen
Image by RadsWiki CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 4-year-old boy presents with a 3-week history of decreased appetite, lethargy, and intermittent abdominal pain. His parents note his abdomen seems larger. Vitals are stable. On examination, a firm, irregular mass is palpable in the upper abdomen. Blood work shows mild anaemia. The provided image is an axial CT slice of the abdomen. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the image, which of the following investigations is the MOST appropriate initial step to support the suspected diagnosis?

A. Bone marrow biopsy
B. Fine needle aspiration of the mass
C. Urinary catecholamine metabolites (e.g., VMA, HVA)
D. Repeat CT scan with contrast
E. Serum alpha-fetoprotein
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A 10-year-old boy is brought to the GP by his parents, who report difficulties with attention and hyperactivity at school and home for the past 6 months. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial step in managing this child?

A. Referral to a paediatrician or child psychiatrist for comprehensive assessment
B. Initiation of a trial of stimulant medication
C. Advising the parents to implement stricter discipline at home
D. Recommending behavioural therapy alone
E. Suggesting dietary changes, such as eliminating sugar
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An ultrasound showing target sign which is a characteristic finding for intussusception on ultrasound, this ultrasound is for a 3 year old boy with intestinal intussusception.
Image by Frank Gaillard CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 3-year-old boy presents with sudden onset, intermittent, severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and lethargy. On examination, he is pale and has a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. Vitals are stable. An ultrasound is performed, shown above. Based on the clinical presentation and the provided image, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Urgent surgical consultation for laparotomy
B. Administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics
C. CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis
D. Admission for observation and serial abdominal exams
E. Air enema reduction
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Umbilical hernia
Image by Ibrahim Husain Meraj CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 3-year-old child is brought to the GP by their parents who are worried about the appearance of their child's abdomen, as shown in the image. The child is otherwise well, active, and has no pain, vomiting, or changes in bowel habits. On examination, the finding is soft and easily reducible. Vital signs are normal. Based on this presentation and the image, what is the most appropriate initial management?

A. Application of a binder or tape over the area.
B. Advise strict bed rest to prevent worsening.
C. Request an abdominal ultrasound to assess contents.
D. Reassurance and observation for spontaneous closure.
E. Urgent surgical referral for repair.
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For which condition is predictive genetic testing in an asymptomatic minor generally *not* recommended?

A. Huntington's disease
B. Alpha-1 Antitrypsin Deficiency
C. Cystic Fibrosis
D. Familial Adenomatous Polyposis
E. Hereditary Hemochromatosis
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A 10-year-old presents with a sore throat, fever, and fatigue for 2 days. Examination reveals tonsillar exudates and tender anterior cervical lymph nodes. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Advise symptomatic treatment with paracetamol
B. Refer to an ENT specialist
C. Perform a rapid strep test
D. Order a throat culture
E. Prescribe oral amoxicillin
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Umbilical hernia
Image by Ibrahim Husain Meraj CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 1-year-old child is presented to the general practitioner by their parents who are concerned about the appearance of their child's umbilicus, as depicted in the accompanying image. The parents report the bulge is more prominent with crying but is easily reducible. The child is otherwise well, feeding normally, and has no history of pain, vomiting, or constipation. Physical examination reveals normal vital signs and a soft, non-tender abdomen. Considering the clinical presentation and the finding shown, what is the most appropriate advice to give the parents regarding initial management?

A. Recommend an abdominal ultrasound scan to rule out incarceration or other complications.
B. Instruct the parents on how to apply a binder or tape to the area to help it close faster.
C. Provide reassurance that this is a common condition in infants and toddlers that often resolves spontaneously, advising observation.
D. Explain that surgical repair is typically required and arrange a referral to a paediatric surgical service.
E. Advise investigation for potential underlying genetic syndromes or metabolic disorders.
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Pyloric stenosis as seen on ultrasound in a 6 week old
Image by Dr Laughlin Dawes CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 6-week-old male presents with projectile vomiting after feeds. He is otherwise well-appearing, with normal vital signs and no abdominal distension. An ultrasound was performed, and an image is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Barium swallow study
B. Upper endoscopy with biopsy
C. Surgical consultation for pyloromyotomy
D. Initiate erythromycin therapy
E. Trial of thickened feeds
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An ultrasound showing target sign which is a characteristic finding for intussusception on ultrasound, this ultrasound is for a 3 year old boy with intestinal intussusception.
Image by Frank Gaillard CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A previously well 3-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with a 12-hour history of sudden onset, intermittent, severe, colicky abdominal pain, associated with non-bilious vomiting. Between episodes, he appears lethargic and pale. His vital signs are stable: HR 110, BP 90/60, RR 24, Temp 37.2. Abdominal examination reveals mild distension and tenderness, but no guarding or rebound. Bowel sounds are present. A point-of-care ultrasound is performed by the emergency physician. Considering the clinical presentation, the patient's current stable vital signs, and the specific findings demonstrated in the provided ultrasound image, which of the following represents the single most appropriate immediate next step in the management of this patient in an Australian tertiary paediatric centre?

A. Proceed directly to surgical exploration.
B. Attempt pneumatic or hydrostatic reduction under fluoroscopic guidance.
C. Obtain a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis.
D. Administer IV fluids and observe for resolution.
E. Discharge home with pain relief and follow-up.
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An ultrasound showing target sign which is a characteristic finding for intussusception on ultrasound, this ultrasound is for a 3 year old boy with intestinal intussusception.
Image by Frank Gaillard CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 3-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with a 12-hour history of sudden onset, severe, colicky abdominal pain, drawing his legs up, and non-bilious vomiting. His parents report he has been listless between episodes and had a small amount of red jelly-like stool earlier. Vitals: T 37.2°C, HR 110, RR 24, BP 95/60, Sats 98% on air. Abdominal examination reveals tenderness in the right upper quadrant and a palpable mass. Bowel sounds are diminished. A point-of-care ultrasound is performed. Based on the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the provided ultrasound image, what is the most appropriate initial management step for this patient?

A. Initiate intravenous antibiotics and observe for improvement.
B. Proceed directly to urgent surgical exploration.
C. Attempt pneumatic or hydrostatic reduction under fluoroscopic guidance.
D. Administer opioid analgesia and arrange for outpatient follow-up.
E. Obtain a contrast-enhanced CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis.
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A 6-year-old child presents with intensely itchy, small, fluid-filled blisters on their hands and feet. The blisters are most prominent on the palms and soles. The child has a history of atopic dermatitis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Pompholyx eczema
B. Contact dermatitis
C. Scabies
D. Bullous impetigo
E. Hand, foot, and mouth disease
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Neuroblastoma, CT of the abdomen
Image by RadsWiki CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 3-year-old child presents with a 2-month history of increasing abdominal distension and intermittent pain. On examination, a firm, non-tender mass is palpable in the upper abdomen. Initial blood tests reveal mild anaemia. Vital signs are stable. The provided image was obtained as part of the diagnostic evaluation. Based on the findings in the image and the clinical context, which of the following imaging modalities is most likely to provide critical information regarding potential metastatic disease, which is essential for accurate staging and treatment planning in this paediatric patient?

A. Bone scan with Technetium-99m
B. Contrast-enhanced ultrasound of the abdomen
C. PET-CT with 18F-FDG
D. 123I-MIBG scintigraphy
E. Whole-body MRI
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A 3-year-old child presents to the clinic with a history of recurrent wheezing episodes, especially during viral infections. What is the most common cause of wheezing in children under 5 years of age?

A. Asthma
B. Foreign body aspiration
C. Viral bronchiolitis
D. Congenital heart disease
E. Cystic fibrosis
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Pyloric stenosis as seen on ultrasound in a 6 week old
Image by Dr Laughlin Dawes CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 6-week-old male infant presents with increasing frequency of non-bilious vomiting after feeds for the past week. He is otherwise well, afebrile, and has wet nappies. On examination, he is alert and interactive. Abdominal examination is unremarkable. Vitals are stable. You order an ultrasound, which is shown. Based on the clinical presentation and the provided image, what is the most appropriate immediate next step in management?

A. Obtain an upper gastrointestinal barium study.
B. Discharge home with advice on feeding techniques and follow-up.
C. Proceed directly to surgical pyloromyotomy.
D. Initiate intravenous fluid resuscitation and correct electrolyte abnormalities.
E. Prescribe a proton pump inhibitor and trial smaller, more frequent feeds.
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A 10-year-old presents with a sore throat, fever, and tonsillar exudates. Rapid strep test is negative. What is the most appropriate next step?

A. Throat culture
B. Start antibiotics
C. Refer to ENT
D. Prescribe analgesics and advise on symptomatic treatment
E. Order a monospot test
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Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Image by Adityagupta95 CC0 1.0 · Source

A 3-week-old male presents with projectile vomiting. Upper GI series (image shown). What electrolyte abnormality is MOST likely?

A. Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypophosphatemia
D. Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis
E. Hyponatremia
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A 10-year-old child with ADHD is started on stimulant medication. His parents report that he has lost weight and is not eating well. What is the most likely side effect of the medication?

A. Insomnia
B. Mood swings
C. Decreased appetite
D. Hypertension
E. Tics
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A neonate, born at 38 weeks gestation, presents with bilious vomiting starting 12 hours after birth. Antenatal ultrasound revealed polyhydramnios. On examination, the baby is active and has a distended upper abdomen but a scaphoid lower abdomen. An abdominal X-ray shows a 'double bubble' sign. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this neonate, considering potential associated complications?

A. Immediately perform a contrast enema to rule out meconium ileus as a cause of the obstruction.
B. Initiate intravenous fluids, nasogastric decompression, and prepare for surgical intervention after stabilization.
C. Begin feeds with a hydrolysed formula to assess tolerance and rule out milk protein allergy.
D. Start the neonate on broad-spectrum antibiotics to cover potential bacterial translocation.
E. Perform an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy to visualize the obstruction and obtain biopsies.
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Umbilical hernia
Image by Ibrahim Husain Meraj CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 6-month-old male infant is brought to the emergency department by his parents. They report that they have noticed a bulge on his abdomen that seems to get larger when he cries. The infant is otherwise healthy, feeding well, and has normal bowel movements. On examination, the infant is afebrile, and his vital signs are within normal limits. The abdomen is soft and non-tender. Palpation reveals a soft, reducible mass at the umbilicus, as shown in the image. What is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Urgent ultrasound to rule out incarceration
B. Application of an abdominal binder
C. Reassurance and observation
D. Immediate surgical referral for elective repair
E. Initiation of a high-fiber diet to prevent constipation
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An ultrasound showing target sign which is a characteristic finding for intussusception on ultrasound, this ultrasound is for a 3 year old boy with intestinal intussusception.
Image by Frank Gaillard CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 3-year-old boy presents with a 12-hour history of intermittent, severe abdominal pain, drawing his legs up to his chest. He has vomited several times. His vital signs are stable: HR 110, BP 95/60, RR 24, Temp 37.2°C. On examination, he is irritable but comfortable between episodes of pain. His abdomen is soft but mildly distended. A focused abdominal ultrasound is performed, yielding the image provided. Based on the clinical presentation and the findings shown, which of the following non-surgical interventions is typically attempted first to resolve the underlying issue?

A. Nasogastric tube insertion for decompression and bowel rest
B. Pneumatic reduction under fluoroscopic guidance
C. Administration of intravenous opioids for pain control followed by observation
D. Intravenous fluid resuscitation and broad-spectrum antibiotics
E. Urgent surgical exploration and manual reduction
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Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Image by Adityagupta95 CC0 1.0 · Source

A 3-week-old male infant presents with persistent, non-bilious projectile vomiting after each feed. He appears hungry and eagerly accepts the bottle, but vomits shortly after. On examination, mild dehydration is noted. An abdominal X-ray is ordered, the relevant image is attached. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Perform an upper endoscopy
B. Administer intravenous ondansetron
C. Initiate a course of erythromycin
D. Surgical pyloromyotomy
E. Start a trial of thickened feeds
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Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Image by Adityagupta95 CC0 1.0 · Source

A 6-week-old male infant presents with a 2-week history of progressively worsening projectile non-bilious vomiting after feeds. He has lost weight and appears lethargic. Initial bloods show a hypochloremic, hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis. After fluid resuscitation, the image is obtained. What is the most appropriate definitive management for this patient?

A. Further imaging with abdominal ultrasound
B. Placement of nasogastric tube for gastric decompression
C. Trial of medical management with atropine
D. Discharge home with thickened feeds and anti-reflux medication
E. Surgical pyloromyotomy
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A 3-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department with a high fever, irritability, and a rash. The rash started on his face and has now spread to his trunk and limbs. On examination, he has conjunctivitis and Koplik spots are noted on the buccal mucosa. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Scarlet fever
B. Roseola
C. Rubella
D. Measles
E. Chickenpox
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Umbilical hernia
Image by Ibrahim Husain Meraj CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 14-month-old child is brought to the general practitioner for a routine check-up and immunisations. The parents express mild concern about a bulge they have noticed around the child's navel, which seems more prominent when the child is crying or straining. They report it is easily pushed back in and does not appear to cause the child any pain or discomfort. The child is otherwise thriving, with normal feeding, bowel movements, and developmental progress. On physical examination, the child is alert and interactive. Vital signs are within normal limits for age. Abdominal examination reveals no distension or tenderness. The finding illustrated in the image is noted. Based on this clinical presentation and examination finding, what is the most appropriate initial management plan?

A. Refer the child for urgent surgical consultation due to the presence of a visible abdominal wall defect.
B. Arrange for an abdominal ultrasound scan to assess the contents and size of the defect.
C. Refer the child to a paediatric gastroenterologist to investigate potential underlying causes of increased intra-abdominal pressure.
D. Provide reassurance to the parents regarding the benign nature of the finding and advise observation, explaining the likelihood of spontaneous closure.
E. Recommend the application of a supportive abdominal binder or tape to facilitate closure of the defect.
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A 14-year-old girl living alone presents with a positive urine pregnancy test. She states she was raped 6 months ago and wishes to terminate the pregnancy. What is the next appropriate step?

A. Refer her to a gynaecologist.
B. Inform police.
C. Send her to the women's home.
D. Terminate the pregnancy.
E. Inform child protection services.
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Neuroblastoma, CT of the abdomen
Image by RadsWiki CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 3-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with a one-week history of abdominal pain, decreased appetite, and irritability. His parents also report that he has been increasingly tired and pale. On examination, the child is noted to have a palpable abdominal mass. A CT scan of the abdomen is performed, the axial view is shown. Based on the image and clinical presentation, which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Surgical resection of the mass
B. Measurement of urine vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) and homovanillic acid (HVA) levels
C. Referral for immediate liver biopsy
D. Observation with serial abdominal examinations
E. Initiation of broad-spectrum antibiotics
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Pyloric stenosis as seen on ultrasound in a 6 week old
Image by Dr Laughlin Dawes CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 6-week-old male infant presents to the emergency department with a 2-week history of progressively worsening non-bilious vomiting, which has become projectile over the past few days. His parents report he is feeding eagerly but vomits most feeds shortly after completion. He has had fewer wet nappies than usual and appears more lethargic. On examination, he is irritable but consolable. His weight is below the 3rd percentile, having dropped from the 10th percentile at birth. Vital signs are: Temperature 36.8°C, Heart Rate 155 bpm, Respiratory Rate 40 bpm, Blood Pressure 85/50 mmHg, Oxygen Saturation 98% on room air. Capillary refill time is 3 seconds. Abdominal examination reveals a soft, non-distended abdomen with active bowel sounds; no palpable masses are appreciated. Initial blood gas shows pH 7.52, pCO2 40 mmHg, Bicarbonate 32 mmol/L, Na+ 132 mmol/L, K+ 3.0 mmol/L, Cl- 88 mmol/L. A point-of-care ultrasound was performed, and the image provided was obtained. Considering the clinical presentation, the laboratory findings, and the abnormality demonstrated in the provided image, which of the following best explains the mechanism leading to the observed electrolyte and acid-base derangements?

A. Loss of gastric acid (HCl) through vomiting, leading to compensatory renal hydrogen ion excretion and potassium wasting.
B. Increased aldosterone secretion due to dehydration, causing sodium retention and potassium excretion.
C. Excessive sodium and water loss in stool due to malabsorption.
D. Shift of potassium into intracellular space due to metabolic alkalosis.
E. Impaired renal bicarbonate excretion due to decreased glomerular filtration rate from dehydration.
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An ultrasound showing target sign which is a characteristic finding for intussusception on ultrasound, this ultrasound is for a 3 year old boy with intestinal intussusception.
Image by Frank Gaillard CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 3-year-old boy presents with sudden onset, intermittent, severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and lethargy. Examination reveals a palpable mass. Vitals stable. Ultrasound performed. Based on the clinical presentation and the provided image, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Urgent surgical exploration
B. Pneumatic reduction under fluoroscopy
C. Abdominal CT scan with contrast
D. Admission for observation and IV fluids
E. Administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics
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A newborn has abdominal swelling and scrotal swelling. On examination, the swelling is soft and reducible. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Hydrocele
B. Testicular torsion
C. Inguinal hernia
D. Epididymitis
E. Varicocele
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A 16-year-old boy is diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes mellitus after presenting with polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. His blood tests show elevated blood glucose levels and the presence of autoantibodies against pancreatic beta cells. In contrast, a 55-year-old woman is diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes mellitus, characterized by insulin resistance and obesity. Which of the following best describes the pathophysiological differences between Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes?

A. Type 1 diabetes involves insulin resistance and obesity, whereas Type 2 diabetes is due to genetic mutations affecting insulin production.
B. Type 1 diabetes is caused by insulin resistance due to obesity, while Type 2 diabetes results from autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells.
C. Type 1 diabetes is characterized by insulin resistance, while Type 2 diabetes involves absolute insulin deficiency due to beta-cell destruction.
D. Both Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes are primarily caused by autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells.
E. Type 1 diabetes involves autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells, leading to absolute insulin deficiency, whereas Type 2 diabetes is characterized by insulin resistance and relative insulin deficiency.
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Pyloric stenosis as seen on ultrasound in a 6 week old
Image by Dr Laughlin Dawes CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 5-week-old male presents with non-bilious projectile vomiting. An ultrasound is performed (shown). What acid-base disturbance is MOST likely?

A. Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis
B. Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
E. Normal acid-base balance
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Pyloric stenosis as seen on ultrasound in a 6 week old
Image by Dr Laughlin Dawes CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 6-week-old infant presents with a 1-week history of increasing frequency of non-bilious, projectile vomiting occurring shortly after feeds. He has lost some weight since his last check-up. Examination is otherwise unremarkable. An ultrasound is performed, shown in the image. Based on the clinical presentation and the provided image, which of the following electrolyte abnormalities is the most likely consequence if this condition remains untreated?

A. Hypernatremic metabolic acidosis
B. Hyponatremic respiratory alkalosis
C. Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis
D. Hypokalemic respiratory acidosis
E. Hypercalcemic metabolic alkalosis
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Neuroblastoma, CT of the abdomen
Image by RadsWiki CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 3-year-old presents with abdominal distension and bone pain. The provided image was obtained. What is the MOST likely source of the elevated urine HVA and VMA?

A. Hepatocytes
B. Adrenal cortical cells
C. Renal tubular cells
D. Neural crest cells
E. Pancreatic islet cells
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Pyloric stenosis as seen on ultrasound in a 6 week old
Image by Dr Laughlin Dawes CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 6-week-old male infant presents with a 1-week history of progressively worsening non-bilious vomiting, often projectile, occurring shortly after feeds. His parents report he is constantly hungry and irritable but has had poor weight gain. On examination, he is alert but appears thin. Vital signs are stable. Abdominal examination is soft, non-tender, with no palpable mass. An abdominal ultrasound is performed, the image of which is shown. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings depicted, what is the most appropriate initial management strategy?

A. Referral to a paediatric gastroenterologist for further investigation
B. Discharge home with advice on smaller, more frequent feeds
C. Urgent upper gastrointestinal contrast study
D. Surgical pyloromyotomy after fluid and electrolyte correction
E. Trial of antiemetic medication and thickened feeds
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A 10-year-old boy with a known history of asthma presents to the emergency department. He developed symptoms three days after a viral upper respiratory tract infection. On examination, he is tachypnoeic (respiratory rate 48 breaths/min), tachycardic (heart rate 130 bpm), and hypoxic with an oxygen saturation of 91% on room air. He is speaking only in short phrases but remains alert and is afebrile. Auscultation reveals a widespread wheeze throughout his chest. A COVID swab performed yesterday was negative. Which investigation is the most appropriate next step in the immediate management of this patient?

A. Full Blood Count (FBC)
B. No further diagnostics are required immediately.
C. Chest X-ray
D. Peak Expiratory Flow (PEF) measurement
E. Arterial Blood Gas (ABG)
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Umbilical hernia
Image by Ibrahim Husain Meraj CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 9-month-old presents with a noticeable abdominal protrusion, more prominent when crying. The child is feeding well and has regular bowel movements. Examination reveals a soft, easily reducible bulge at the umbilicus, as shown. Parents are concerned about potential complications. What is the MOST appropriate parental advice?

A. Advise immediate surgical repair to prevent future complications like bowel strangulation.
B. Recommend applying a belly band to reduce the protrusion and promote closure.
C. Reassurance that most cases resolve spontaneously by age 5; surgical intervention is rarely needed unless incarcerated.
D. Suggest a high-fiber diet to prevent constipation and reduce intra-abdominal pressure.
E. Prescribe topical corticosteroids to reduce inflammation and promote skin closure.
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Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Image by Adityagupta95 CC0 1.0 · Source

A 5-week-old male infant presents with a 10-day history of non-bilious, forceful vomiting after every feed. His parents report decreased wet nappies and lethargy. On examination, he is pale, weighs 3.2 kg (birth weight 3.5 kg), has sunken eyes, and poor skin turgor. Vital signs: HR 170, RR 45, Temp 37.0, BP 80/50. Initial bloods show Na 132, K 3.1, Cl 88, HCO3 30. An imaging study is performed, shown in the image. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the imaging study, what is the most appropriate immediate management priority for this infant?

A. Administer intravenous ondansetron to control vomiting.
B. Arrange urgent surgical consultation for definitive operative management.
C. Initiate intravenous fluid resuscitation with 0.9% sodium chloride and potassium supplementation.
D. Obtain a repeat imaging study using abdominal ultrasound.
E. Insert a nasogastric tube for gastric decompression and feeding.
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Umbilical hernia
Image by Ibrahim Husain Meraj CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 6-month-old presents for a well-child check. The image shows the abdominal exam. Parents report it enlarges when crying. What is the most appropriate next step?

A. Immediate surgical exploration
B. Reassurance and observation
C. Initiation of diuretic therapy
D. Application of an abdominal binder
E. Surgical referral for elective repair
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Umbilical hernia
Image by Ibrahim Husain Meraj CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 9-month-old presents with a noticeable abdominal protrusion, accentuated during crying. The infant is feeding well and has regular bowel movements. Examination reveals a soft, easily reducible bulge at the umbilicus, as shown. Parents are concerned about potential complications. What is the MOST appropriate parental advice?

A. Prescribe topical corticosteroids to reduce inflammation and promote skin retraction.
B. Recommend applying a belly band to reduce the hernia and promote closure.
C. Advise immediate surgical repair to prevent future complications like bowel strangulation.
D. Suggest a high-fiber diet to prevent constipation and reduce intra-abdominal pressure.
E. Reassurance that most cases resolve spontaneously by age 5; surgical intervention is rarely needed unless incarcerated.
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Pyloric stenosis as seen on ultrasound in a 6 week old
Image by Dr Laughlin Dawes CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 6-week-old infant presents with a 1-week history of increasing non-bilious projectile vomiting after feeds. He is otherwise well, afebrile, and has wet nappies. Examination is unremarkable. An ultrasound is performed, shown in the image. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings in the provided image, what is the most appropriate definitive surgical intervention for this condition?

A. Antrectomy
B. Laparoscopic Nissen fundoplication
C. Ramstedt pyloromyotomy
D. Gastrostomy tube insertion
E. Pyloric dilatation
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A 4-year-old boy is brought to the pediatrician by his parents due to a persistent cough and wheezing for the past two weeks. The symptoms started after he had a cold. He has no significant past medical history and is up to date with his vaccinations. On examination, he is afebrile, with mild respiratory distress and bilateral wheezing on auscultation. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?

A. Inhaled salbutamol
B. Observation and reassurance
C. Oral corticosteroids
D. Oral antibiotics
E. Inhaled corticosteroids
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An ultrasound showing target sign which is a characteristic finding for intussusception on ultrasound, this ultrasound is for a 3 year old boy with intestinal intussusception.
Image by Frank Gaillard CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A previously healthy 2-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with a 1-day history of colicky abdominal pain. His parents report that the pain occurs in episodes, during which he cries intensely and pulls his legs up to his chest. Between episodes, he appears relatively comfortable. He has had one episode of vomiting. His parents also noticed a small amount of blood in his stool this morning. On examination, the child is alert but irritable. His abdomen is soft, but a palpable mass is noted in the right upper quadrant. An ultrasound is performed, with a representative image shown. What is the MOST appropriate initial management strategy?

A. Air enema under fluoroscopic guidance
B. Surgical exploration
C. Appendectomy
D. Observation with intravenous fluids
E. Barium enema
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Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Image by Adityagupta95 CC0 1.0 · Source

A 4-week-old male presents with projectile vomiting after feeding. He is irritable and appears dehydrated. An upper GI series is performed, as shown. After addressing immediate concerns, what is the MOST appropriate next step?

A. Perform an upper endoscopy with biopsy
B. Administer intravenous antibiotics
C. Surgical pyloromyotomy
D. Start H2 receptor antagonist therapy
E. Initiate a trial of thickened feeds
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Neuroblastoma, CT of the abdomen
Image by RadsWiki CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 2-year-old child is evaluated for a 6-week history of increasing abdominal girth, decreased appetite, and occasional bone pain. Physical examination reveals a large, firm, irregular mass in the upper abdomen that appears fixed and crosses the midline. Vital signs are within normal limits for age. Initial investigations show mild anaemia and elevated serum lactate dehydrogenase. An abdominal CT scan is performed (image provided). Given the findings demonstrated in the image and the clinical context, which of the following molecular or genetic analyses is considered a critical determinant of risk stratification and influences treatment intensity for the most likely underlying malignancy?

A. BCR-ABL fusion transcript detection
B. TP53 gene sequencing
C. WT1 gene mutation analysis
D. ALK gene mutation analysis
E. MYCN amplification status
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Umbilical hernia
Image by Ibrahim Husain Meraj CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 14-month-old child is brought to the general practitioner for a routine check-up and immunisations. The parents express mild concern about a bulge they have noticed around the child's navel, which seems more prominent when the child is crying or straining. They report it is easily pushed back in and does not appear to cause the child any pain or discomfort. The child is otherwise thriving, with normal feeding, bowel movements, and developmental progress. On physical examination, the child is alert and interactive. Vital signs are within normal limits for age. Abdominal examination reveals no distension or tenderness. The finding shown in the image is noted. Based on this clinical presentation and examination finding, what is the most appropriate initial management plan?

A. Provide reassurance to the parents that spontaneous closure is likely and no immediate intervention is required.
B. Arrange an abdominal ultrasound to assess the size of the fascial defect and contents of the sac.
C. Schedule elective surgical repair within the next 6 months to prevent future complications.
D. Recommend applying a firm abdominal binder or tape over the area to facilitate closure.
E. Refer the child for urgent surgical consultation due to the risk of incarceration or strangulation.
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An ultrasound showing target sign which is a characteristic finding for intussusception on ultrasound, this ultrasound is for a 3 year old boy with intestinal intussusception.
Image by Frank Gaillard CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 3-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with a 12-hour history of intermittent, severe abdominal pain, drawing his legs up to his chest. He has vomited several times. His vital signs are stable: HR 110, BP 95/60, RR 24, Temp 37.2°C. On examination, he is irritable but comfortable between episodes of pain. His abdomen is soft but mildly distended. A focused abdominal ultrasound is performed, yielding the image provided. Based on the clinical presentation and the findings shown, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Pneumatic reduction under fluoroscopy
B. Abdominal CT scan with contrast
C. Admission for observation and serial abdominal exams
D. Immediate surgical consultation for laparotomy
E. Administration of broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics
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A 14-year-old girl who has been living alone presents with a positive urine pregnancy test. She states she was raped 6 months ago and wishes to terminate the pregnancy. What is the next appropriate step?

A. Refer her to a gynecologist.
B. Terminate the pregnancy.
C. Send her to a women's home.
D. Inform the police.
E. Inform child protection services.
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An ultrasound showing target sign which is a characteristic finding for intussusception on ultrasound, this ultrasound is for a 3 year old boy with intestinal intussusception.
Image by Frank Gaillard CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 3-year-old boy presents with sudden onset intermittent severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and lethargy. On examination, he is pale and has a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. An ultrasound is performed (image provided). Based on this finding, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Pneumatic or hydrostatic enema reduction
B. Immediate surgical exploration
C. Abdominal CT scan with contrast
D. Observation with IV fluids and analgesia
E. Barium swallow study
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An ultrasound showing target sign which is a characteristic finding for intussusception on ultrasound, this ultrasound is for a 3 year old boy with intestinal intussusception.
Image by Frank Gaillard CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 3-year-old boy presents with sudden onset, intermittent, severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and lethargy. Examination reveals a pale child with a soft abdomen. Vitals are stable. An abdominal ultrasound is performed (image provided). What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Admission for observation and serial abdominal exams
B. Intravenous antibiotics and fluid resuscitation
C. CT abdomen/pelvis with contrast
D. Pneumatic reduction under fluoroscopy
E. Urgent surgical exploration
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