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pediatrics

Practice targeted AMC-style multiple-choice questions on pediatrics.

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Neuroblastoma, CT of the abdomen
Image by RadsWiki CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 3-year-old child is brought to the paediatric clinic by their parents due to a 2-month history of increasing abdominal distension, poor appetite, and occasional constipation. On physical examination, a firm, irregular mass is palpable in the upper abdomen, crossing the midline. Vital signs are stable. Initial blood tests, including full blood count and liver function tests, are within normal limits. An abdominal CT scan is performed (image provided). Considering the findings demonstrated in the image, which of the following investigations represents the most appropriate next step in establishing a definitive diagnosis and guiding further management?

A. Surgical resection of the mass
B. Bone marrow aspirate and biopsy
C. Repeat abdominal CT scan in three months
D. Urine catecholamine metabolites (VMA and HVA)
E. Lumbar puncture for cerebrospinal fluid analysis
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A 28-year-old woman, 18 weeks pregnant, presents to her GP two days after her 5-year-old son developed varicella. She is unsure of her immunity status and is asymptomatic. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management step?

A. Observe closely for symptoms and treat with acyclovir if rash develops.
B. Reassure her that the risk is low given she is asymptomatic.
C. Administer varicella vaccine.
D. Obtain urgent varicella serology and administer VZIG if non-immune.
E. Administer varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) as soon as possible.
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An ultrasound showing target sign which is a characteristic finding for intussusception on ultrasound, this ultrasound is for a 3 year old boy with intestinal intussusception.
Image by Frank Gaillard CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 3-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of intermittent, severe abdominal pain. His mother reports episodes where he cries inconsolably, draws his knees to his chest, and then seems to recover briefly before the pain returns. He has also passed a stool mixed with mucus and blood, described as 'red currant jelly'. On examination, the child is afebrile, but appears pale and lethargic. Abdominal palpation reveals a sausage-shaped mass in the right upper quadrant. An ultrasound is performed, and a representative image is shown. Assuming the diagnosis is confirmed, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Stool culture and sensitivity testing
B. Oral rehydration and analgesia
C. Air enema under radiological guidance
D. Intravenous antibiotics and observation
E. Surgical resection of the affected bowel segment
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Neuroblastoma, CT of the abdomen
Image by RadsWiki CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 4-year-old boy presents with a 3-week history of decreased appetite, lethargy, and intermittent abdominal pain. His parents note his abdomen seems larger. Vitals are stable. On examination, a firm, irregular mass is palpable in the upper abdomen. Blood work shows mild anaemia. The provided image is an axial CT slice of the abdomen. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the image, which of the following investigations is the MOST appropriate initial step to support the suspected diagnosis?

A. Bone marrow biopsy
B. Fine needle aspiration of the mass
C. Urinary catecholamine metabolites (e.g., VMA, HVA)
D. Repeat CT scan with contrast
E. Serum alpha-fetoprotein
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A 10-year-old boy presents to the pediatric clinic with a history of fever, a rash characterized by erythema marginatum, and migratory arthralgia. His mother reports that he had a sore throat about three weeks ago, which resolved without treatment. On examination, he has a temperature of 38.5°C, a heart rate of 110 bpm, and a faint erythematous rash on his trunk. His joints are tender but not swollen. Given the suspicion of acute rheumatic fever, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Perform an anti-streptolysin O (ASO) titer test
B. Echocardiogram
C. Start aspirin therapy
D. Throat swab culture
E. Initiate corticosteroid treatment
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An ultrasound showing target sign which is a characteristic finding for intussusception on ultrasound, this ultrasound is for a 3 year old boy with intestinal intussusception.
Image by Frank Gaillard CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 3-year-old boy presents with intermittent abdominal pain, vomiting, and bloody stools. An ultrasound is performed, the image is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Stool culture
B. Surgical resection
C. Observation and analgesia
D. Air enema
E. Appendectomy
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Umbilical hernia
Image by Ibrahim Husain Meraj CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 3-year-old child is brought to the GP by their parents who are worried about the appearance of their child's abdomen, as shown in the image. The child is otherwise well, active, and has no pain, vomiting, or changes in bowel habits. On examination, the finding is soft and easily reducible. Vital signs are normal. Based on this presentation and the image, what is the most appropriate initial management?

A. Application of a binder or tape over the area.
B. Advise strict bed rest to prevent worsening.
C. Request an abdominal ultrasound to assess contents.
D. Reassurance and observation for spontaneous closure.
E. Urgent surgical referral for repair.
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A 3-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents due to a high fever and irritability. He has had a runny nose and cough for the past two days. On examination, he is lethargic and has a bulging fontanelle. A lumbar puncture is performed, and the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis shows elevated protein, low glucose, and a high white cell count with a predominance of neutrophils. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Tuberculous meningitis
B. Bacterial meningitis
C. Subdural hematoma
D. Viral meningitis
E. Encephalitis
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Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Image by Adityagupta95 CC0 1.0 · Source

A 3-week-old male presents with non-bilious projectile vomiting after each feed. He is otherwise well-appearing. An abdominal X-ray is unremarkable. An upper GI contrast study is performed, and relevant images are shown. What is the MOST likely acid-base disturbance in this patient?

A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis
C. Normal acid-base balance
D. Respiratory acidosis
E. Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis
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For which condition is predictive genetic testing in an asymptomatic minor generally *not* recommended?

A. Huntington's disease
B. Alpha-1 Antitrypsin Deficiency
C. Cystic Fibrosis
D. Familial Adenomatous Polyposis
E. Hereditary Hemochromatosis
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Umbilical hernia
Image by Ibrahim Husain Meraj CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 1-year-old child is presented to the general practitioner by their parents who are concerned about the appearance of their child's umbilicus, as depicted in the accompanying image. The parents report the bulge is more prominent with crying but is easily reducible. The child is otherwise well, feeding normally, and has no history of pain, vomiting, or constipation. Physical examination reveals normal vital signs and a soft, non-tender abdomen. Considering the clinical presentation and the finding shown, what is the most appropriate advice to give the parents regarding initial management?

A. Recommend an abdominal ultrasound scan to rule out incarceration or other complications.
B. Instruct the parents on how to apply a binder or tape to the area to help it close faster.
C. Provide reassurance that this is a common condition in infants and toddlers that often resolves spontaneously, advising observation.
D. Explain that surgical repair is typically required and arrange a referral to a paediatric surgical service.
E. Advise investigation for potential underlying genetic syndromes or metabolic disorders.
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A 15yo boy has no puberty signs. Initial tests show low LH/FSH. What is the most likely next step in investigation?

A. Bone age X-ray
B. MRI pituitary
C. GnRH stimulation test
D. Karyotype
E. Reassurance and review in 6 months
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Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Image by Adityagupta95 CC0 1.0 · Source

A 3-week-old male infant is brought to the emergency department by his parents due to persistent, non-bilious vomiting after each feeding for the past week. The vomiting has become increasingly forceful. The infant appears mildly dehydrated, and his weight has remained stable since birth. On examination, an olive-shaped mass is palpated in the epigastric region when the infant is not actively vomiting. An upper GI series is performed, and the image is shown. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Initiate a trial of thickened feeds
B. Surgical pyloromyotomy
C. Administer intravenous ondansetron and observe
D. Start erythromycin to stimulate gastric emptying
E. Perform an upper endoscopy with biopsy
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Pyloric stenosis as seen on ultrasound in a 6 week old
Image by Dr Laughlin Dawes CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 5-week-old male presents with projectile vomiting. Ultrasound (shown). What electrolyte abnormality is MOST likely?

A. Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypophosphatemia
E. Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis
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Umbilical hernia
Image by Ibrahim Husain Meraj CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 3-year-old child is presented to the general practitioner by their parents who are concerned about the appearance of their child's umbilicus, as depicted in the accompanying image. The child is reported to be entirely asymptomatic, feeding and playing normally, with no history of pain, discomfort, or vomiting. Physical examination reveals normal vital signs and a soft, non-tender abdomen with no signs of obstruction. Considering the clinical presentation and the finding shown, what is the most appropriate initial management plan for this child?

A. Order an abdominal ultrasound scan to evaluate the contents and size of the defect.
B. Arrange an urgent consultation with a paediatric surgeon for immediate operative repair.
C. Prescribe a course of simple analgesia and schedule a routine follow-up appointment in one week.
D. Recommend the application of a firm abdominal binder or tape over the affected area to prevent enlargement.
E. Provide reassurance to the parents regarding the benign nature and likelihood of spontaneous resolution, advising them on signs requiring further assessment.
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Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Image by Adityagupta95 CC0 1.0 · Source

A 3-week-old male infant is brought to the emergency department by his parents due to persistent, non-bilious vomiting after each feeding for the past week. The vomiting has become increasingly forceful. The infant appears mildly dehydrated, with slightly decreased skin turgor. His weight is below the 5th percentile for his age. An abdominal X-ray is unremarkable. Given the clinical presentation, the physician orders further imaging, the results of which are shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Perform an upper endoscopy with biopsy
B. Initiate a trial of thickened feeds
C. Start oral erythromycin
D. Surgical pyloromyotomy
E. Administer intravenous antibiotics
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Neuroblastoma, CT of the abdomen
Image by RadsWiki CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 2-year-old with a palpable abdominal mass and periorbital ecchymoses has the shown CT. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

A. Hepatoblastoma
B. Neuroblastoma
C. Rhabdomyosarcoma
D. Lymphoma
E. Wilms tumor
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Umbilical hernia
Image by Ibrahim Husain Meraj CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 9-month-old presents with the abdominal finding shown. It is soft and reducible. Parents are concerned. What counseling is most appropriate?

A. Reassurance and observation, as most resolve spontaneously by age 5
B. Application of an abdominal binder to prevent further enlargement
C. Immediate surgical referral due to risk of incarceration
D. Initiation of physiotherapy to strengthen abdominal muscles
E. Dietary changes to reduce intra-abdominal pressure
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Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Image by Adityagupta95 CC0 1.0 · Source

A 3-week-old male presents with projectile vomiting. Upper GI series (image shown). What electrolyte abnormality is MOST likely?

A. Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypophosphatemia
D. Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis
E. Hyponatremia
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Neuroblastoma, CT of the abdomen
Image by RadsWiki CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 4-year-old with abdominal pain and hypertension has this CT. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Surgical resection
B. Observation with serial imaging
C. Alpha-blockade
D. Radiation therapy
E. Chemotherapy
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Umbilical hernia
Image by Ibrahim Husain Meraj CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 6-month-old infant presents for a routine check-up. The mother reports the infant is feeding well and has normal bowel movements. On examination, the infant is active and alert with normal vital signs. The abdomen is soft and non-tender. The image shows the infant's abdomen. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Order an abdominal ultrasound to assess for bowel obstruction
B. Reassurance and observation
C. Obtain a complete blood count to rule out infection
D. Referral to a pediatric surgeon for elective repair
E. Initiate a trial of topical corticosteroids
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Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Image by Adityagupta95 CC0 1.0 · Source

A 4-week-old male presents with projectile vomiting after feeding. He is irritable and appears mildly dehydrated. An abdominal exam reveals a palpable, olive-shaped mass in the epigastrium. An upper GI contrast study is performed, and relevant images are shown. What is the MOST appropriate initial step in managing this patient's electrolyte imbalance?

A. Initiate feeding with a hypoallergenic formula
B. Administer intravenous normal saline bolus
C. Administer intravenous sodium bicarbonate
D. Administer oral rehydration solution
E. Administer intravenous potassium chloride
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Pyloric stenosis as seen on ultrasound in a 6 week old
Image by Dr Laughlin Dawes CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 5-week-old male infant presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of non-bilious, projectile vomiting after each feed. He is otherwise well-appearing and afebrile. His mother reports that he is feeding well but seems increasingly hungry after vomiting. On examination, the infant is alert and active, with slightly dry mucous membranes. Abdominal examination is unremarkable, with no palpable masses. An ultrasound of the abdomen is performed, the image of which is shown. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Surgical consultation for pyloromyotomy
B. Administer intravenous ondansetron and observe
C. Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy with biopsy
D. Discharge home with instructions for frequent small-volume feeds
E. Initiate a trial of thickened feeds
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A neonate is born at term following an uneventful pregnancy. Immediately after birth, the baby develops bilious vomiting. Abdominal examination reveals epigastric distension, but the rest of the abdomen is scaphoid. An abdominal X-ray is performed. Which of the following findings on the abdominal X-ray would be most consistent with the likely diagnosis?

A. Double-bubble sign
B. Multiple air-fluid levels throughout the abdomen
C. Free air under the diaphragm
D. Pneumatosis intestinalis
E. Ground glass appearance
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Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Image by Adityagupta95 CC0 1.0 · Source

A 6-week-old male infant presents with a 2-week history of progressively worsening projectile non-bilious vomiting after feeds. He has lost weight and appears lethargic. Initial bloods show a hypochloremic, hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis. After fluid resuscitation, the image is obtained. What is the most appropriate definitive management for this patient?

A. Further imaging with abdominal ultrasound
B. Placement of nasogastric tube for gastric decompression
C. Trial of medical management with atropine
D. Discharge home with thickened feeds and anti-reflux medication
E. Surgical pyloromyotomy
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A 4-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents due to a persistent itchy rash on his arms and legs. The rash has been present for several weeks and seems to worsen at night. The child has a history of asthma and allergic rhinitis. On examination, there are erythematous, scaly patches with excoriations on the flexural surfaces of his arms and legs. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Scabies
B. Psoriasis
C. Contact dermatitis
D. Atopic dermatitis
E. Tinea corporis
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An ultrasound showing target sign which is a characteristic finding for intussusception on ultrasound, this ultrasound is for a 3 year old boy with intestinal intussusception.
Image by Frank Gaillard CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 2-year-old boy presents with abdominal pain and vomiting. An ultrasound is performed, as shown. What is the MOST likely lead point for this condition?

A. Ileocolic junction
B. Polyp
C. Appendix
D. Meckel's diverticulum
E. Duodenal duplication cyst
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A 14-year-old girl living alone presents with a positive urine pregnancy test. She states she was raped 6 months ago and wishes to terminate the pregnancy. What is the next appropriate step?

A. Refer her to a gynaecologist.
B. Inform police.
C. Send her to the women's home.
D. Terminate the pregnancy.
E. Inform child protection services.
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Pyloric stenosis as seen on ultrasound in a 6 week old
Image by Dr Laughlin Dawes CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 6-week-old male infant presents to the emergency department with a 2-week history of progressively worsening non-bilious vomiting, which has become projectile over the past few days. His parents report he is feeding eagerly but vomits most feeds shortly after completion. He has had fewer wet nappies than usual and appears more lethargic. On examination, he is irritable but consolable. His weight is below the 3rd percentile, having dropped from the 10th percentile at birth. Vital signs are: Temperature 36.8°C, Heart Rate 155 bpm, Respiratory Rate 40 bpm, Blood Pressure 85/50 mmHg, Oxygen Saturation 98% on room air. Capillary refill time is 3 seconds. Abdominal examination reveals a soft, non-distended abdomen with active bowel sounds; no palpable masses are appreciated. Initial blood gas shows pH 7.52, pCO2 40 mmHg, Bicarbonate 32 mmol/L, Na+ 132 mmol/L, K+ 3.0 mmol/L, Cl- 88 mmol/L. A point-of-care ultrasound was performed, and the image provided was obtained. Considering the clinical presentation, the laboratory findings, and the abnormality demonstrated in the provided image, which of the following best explains the mechanism leading to the observed electrolyte and acid-base derangements?

A. Loss of gastric acid (HCl) through vomiting, leading to compensatory renal hydrogen ion excretion and potassium wasting.
B. Increased aldosterone secretion due to dehydration, causing sodium retention and potassium excretion.
C. Excessive sodium and water loss in stool due to malabsorption.
D. Shift of potassium into intracellular space due to metabolic alkalosis.
E. Impaired renal bicarbonate excretion due to decreased glomerular filtration rate from dehydration.
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An ultrasound showing target sign which is a characteristic finding for intussusception on ultrasound, this ultrasound is for a 3 year old boy with intestinal intussusception.
Image by Frank Gaillard CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 3-year-old boy presents with sudden onset intermittent severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and lethargy. On examination, he is pale but haemodynamically stable. Abdominal examination reveals a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. An ultrasound is performed (image provided). What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics
B. Admission for observation and IV fluids
C. Abdominal CT scan with contrast
D. Immediate surgical exploration
E. Air or hydrostatic enema reduction
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Neuroblastoma, CT of the abdomen
Image by RadsWiki CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 3-year-old presents with abdominal distension and bone pain. The provided image was obtained. What is the MOST likely source of the elevated urine HVA and VMA?

A. Hepatocytes
B. Adrenal cortical cells
C. Renal tubular cells
D. Neural crest cells
E. Pancreatic islet cells
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Pyloric stenosis as seen on ultrasound in a 6 week old
Image by Dr Laughlin Dawes CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 6-week-old male infant presents with a 1-week history of progressively worsening non-bilious vomiting, often projectile, occurring shortly after feeds. His parents report he is constantly hungry and irritable but has had poor weight gain. On examination, he is alert but appears thin. Vital signs are stable. Abdominal examination is soft, non-tender, with no palpable mass. An abdominal ultrasound is performed, the image of which is shown. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings depicted, what is the most appropriate initial management strategy?

A. Referral to a paediatric gastroenterologist for further investigation
B. Discharge home with advice on smaller, more frequent feeds
C. Urgent upper gastrointestinal contrast study
D. Surgical pyloromyotomy after fluid and electrolyte correction
E. Trial of antiemetic medication and thickened feeds
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Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Image by Adityagupta95 CC0 1.0 · Source

A 5-week-old male presents with projectile vomiting after feeds. He is irritable and appears dehydrated. An upper GI contrast study is performed, with relevant images attached. What is the MOST likely underlying cause?

A. Malrotation with volvulus
B. Duodenal atresia
C. Gastroesophageal reflux
D. Hypertrophy of the pyloric sphincter
E. Esophageal stricture
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Umbilical hernia
Image by Ibrahim Husain Meraj CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 9-month-old presents with a noticeable abdominal protrusion, more prominent when crying. The child is feeding well and has regular bowel movements. Examination reveals a soft, easily reducible bulge at the umbilicus, as shown. Parents are concerned about potential complications. What is the MOST appropriate parental advice?

A. Advise immediate surgical repair to prevent future complications like bowel strangulation.
B. Recommend applying a belly band to reduce the protrusion and promote closure.
C. Reassurance that most cases resolve spontaneously by age 5; surgical intervention is rarely needed unless incarcerated.
D. Suggest a high-fiber diet to prevent constipation and reduce intra-abdominal pressure.
E. Prescribe topical corticosteroids to reduce inflammation and promote skin closure.
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Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Image by Adityagupta95 CC0 1.0 · Source

A 5-week-old male infant presents with a 10-day history of non-bilious, forceful vomiting after every feed. His parents report decreased wet nappies and lethargy. On examination, he is pale, weighs 3.2 kg (birth weight 3.5 kg), has sunken eyes, and poor skin turgor. Vital signs: HR 170, RR 45, Temp 37.0, BP 80/50. Initial bloods show Na 132, K 3.1, Cl 88, HCO3 30. An imaging study is performed, shown in the image. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the imaging study, what is the most appropriate immediate management priority for this infant?

A. Administer intravenous ondansetron to control vomiting.
B. Arrange urgent surgical consultation for definitive operative management.
C. Initiate intravenous fluid resuscitation with 0.9% sodium chloride and potassium supplementation.
D. Obtain a repeat imaging study using abdominal ultrasound.
E. Insert a nasogastric tube for gastric decompression and feeding.
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A 16-year-old Aboriginal boy from a remote community presents to the local clinic with a two-week history of increasing fatigue, occasional shortness of breath on exertion, and migratory joint pains affecting his knees and ankles. He had a documented episode of acute rheumatic fever (ARF) three years ago, complicated by mild mitral regurgitation, and was commenced on monthly benzathine penicillin G injections for secondary prophylaxis. However, his adherence has been inconsistent over the past year due to difficulties accessing the clinic. On examination, he is afebrile. His pulse is 95 bpm, blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, and respiratory rate 18 breaths/min. Cardiac auscultation reveals a soft apical pansystolic murmur, unchanged from his last review six months ago. There is mild swelling and tenderness in his left ankle joint, but no erythema or warmth. His throat swab for *Streptococcus pyogenes* is negative. Laboratory tests show a CRP of 45 mg/L (normal <5), ESR 60 mm/hr (normal <15), and a normal full blood count. An ECG shows sinus rhythm with no PR interval prolongation. A point-of-care ultrasound shows mild mitral regurgitation. Considering the clinical presentation, history, and the significant burden of rheumatic heart disease in this population, which of the following is the most appropriate immediate management step regarding his secondary prophylaxis?

A. Re-establish and reinforce the importance of regular monthly benzathine penicillin G injections.
B. Increase the dose of benzathine penicillin G to fortnightly injections.
C. Initiate a course of oral corticosteroids for suspected recurrent ARF.
D. Arrange urgent formal echocardiogram to assess for progression of valvular disease.
E. Switch secondary prophylaxis to oral penicillin V daily.
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Umbilical hernia
Image by Ibrahim Husain Meraj CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 6-month-old infant presents for a routine check-up. The mother reports the infant is feeding well and has normal bowel movements. On examination, you observe the finding in the image. The mass is soft and easily reducible. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Initiation of high-fiber diet
B. Application of an abdominal binder
C. Immediate surgical referral
D. Genetic testing for connective tissue disorders
E. Reassurance and observation
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A 4-year-old boy is brought to the pediatrician by his parents due to a persistent cough and wheezing for the past two weeks. The symptoms started after he had a cold. He has no significant past medical history and is up to date with his vaccinations. On examination, he is afebrile, with mild respiratory distress and bilateral wheezing on auscultation. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?

A. Inhaled salbutamol
B. Observation and reassurance
C. Oral corticosteroids
D. Oral antibiotics
E. Inhaled corticosteroids
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An ultrasound showing target sign which is a characteristic finding for intussusception on ultrasound, this ultrasound is for a 3 year old boy with intestinal intussusception.
Image by Frank Gaillard CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A previously healthy 2-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with a 1-day history of colicky abdominal pain. His parents report that the pain occurs in episodes, during which he cries intensely and pulls his legs up to his chest. Between episodes, he appears relatively comfortable. He has had one episode of vomiting. His parents also noticed a small amount of blood in his stool this morning. On examination, the child is alert but irritable. His abdomen is soft, but a palpable mass is noted in the right upper quadrant. An ultrasound is performed, with a representative image shown. What is the MOST appropriate initial management strategy?

A. Air enema under fluoroscopic guidance
B. Surgical exploration
C. Appendectomy
D. Observation with intravenous fluids
E. Barium enema
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A child has a sore throat and fever. Centor criteria are 3/4. What's the next step?

A. Order a rapid antigen detection test
B. Throat swab for Group A Streptococcus
C. Refer to ENT specialist
D. Prescribe antibiotics immediately
E. Reassure and recommend analgesia
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A 5-year-old boy presents with wheezing, shortness of breath, and a history of recurrent respiratory infections. His symptoms worsen with exercise and during the night. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Bronchiolitis
C. Asthma
D. Viral pneumonia
E. Foreign body aspiration
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Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Image by Adityagupta95 CC0 1.0 · Source

A 4-week-old male presents with projectile vomiting after feeding. He is irritable and appears dehydrated. An upper GI series is performed, as shown. After addressing immediate concerns, what is the MOST appropriate next step?

A. Perform an upper endoscopy with biopsy
B. Administer intravenous antibiotics
C. Surgical pyloromyotomy
D. Start H2 receptor antagonist therapy
E. Initiate a trial of thickened feeds
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A 5-year-old girl presents with an itchy bottom at night, worse at night, suggestive of threadworm infection. What is the best treatment for her infection in the Australian context?

A. Advise dietary changes, such as reducing sugar intake, as the primary treatment.
B. Recommend applying a topical anti-itch cream to the perianal area.
C. Treat only the affected child with a single dose of pyrantel.
D. Reassure the parents that this is common and has low morbidity, requiring no treatment.
E. Treat the whole family with pyrantel or mebendazole, and repeat in 2 weeks.
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A 14-year-old girl who has been living alone presents with a positive urine pregnancy test. She states she was raped 6 months ago and wishes to terminate the pregnancy. What is the next appropriate step?

A. Refer her to a gynecologist.
B. Terminate the pregnancy.
C. Send her to a women's home.
D. Inform the police.
E. Inform child protection services.
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A 3-year-old child is brought to the general practice clinic by his parents due to recurrent episodes of wheezing and cough, particularly following viral upper respiratory tract infections. The child has had multiple similar episodes over the past year, each resolving with bronchodilator therapy. There is no history of eczema or allergic rhinitis, and the family history is unremarkable for atopic conditions. On examination, the child appears well between episodes, with normal growth parameters and no signs of respiratory distress. Auscultation of the chest reveals clear lung fields without wheezes or crackles. Which of the following is the most likely underlying condition?

A. Bronchiolitis
B. Viral-induced wheeze
C. Foreign body aspiration
D. Cystic fibrosis
E. Asthma
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An ultrasound showing target sign which is a characteristic finding for intussusception on ultrasound, this ultrasound is for a 3 year old boy with intestinal intussusception.
Image by Frank Gaillard CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 3-year-old boy presents with sudden onset intermittent severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and lethargy. On examination, he is pale but haemodynamically stable. Abdominal examination reveals a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. An ultrasound is performed (image provided). What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Admission for observation and IV fluids
B. Air or hydrostatic enema reduction
C. Urgent surgical exploration
D. Abdominal CT scan with contrast
E. Intravenous antibiotics
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A 1-year-old child is brought to the emergency department with a 3-day history of cough, wheezing, and difficulty breathing. The child has a fever of 38.5°C and a runny nose. On examination, the child appears in mild respiratory distress with nasal flaring and intercostal retractions. Auscultation reveals diffuse wheezing and crackles throughout the lung fields. The child has no significant past medical history and is up to date with vaccinations. A chest X-ray shows hyperinflation but no focal consolidation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Foreign body aspiration
B. Asthma
C. Croup
D. Bronchiolitis
E. Pneumonia
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An ultrasound showing target sign which is a characteristic finding for intussusception on ultrasound, this ultrasound is for a 3 year old boy with intestinal intussusception.
Image by Frank Gaillard CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 3-year-old boy presents with sudden onset, intermittent, severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and lethargy. Examination reveals a pale child with a soft abdomen. Vitals are stable. An abdominal ultrasound is performed (image provided). What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Admission for observation and serial abdominal exams
B. Intravenous antibiotics and fluid resuscitation
C. CT abdomen/pelvis with contrast
D. Pneumatic reduction under fluoroscopy
E. Urgent surgical exploration
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An ultrasound showing target sign which is a characteristic finding for intussusception on ultrasound, this ultrasound is for a 3 year old boy with intestinal intussusception.
Image by Frank Gaillard CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 3-year-old boy presents with inconsolable crying and drawing up his legs. Stool sample is positive for blood. The ultrasound is shown. What is the next step?

A. Observation
B. Air enema
C. IV antibiotics
D. Stool culture
E. Appendectomy
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An ultrasound showing target sign which is a characteristic finding for intussusception on ultrasound, this ultrasound is for a 3 year old boy with intestinal intussusception.
Image by Frank Gaillard CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 3-year-old boy presents with intermittent abdominal pain, vomiting, and currant jelly stools. An ultrasound is performed, revealing the image shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Observation and supportive care
B. Surgical resection
C. IV antibiotics
D. Appendectomy
E. Air enema
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