vomiting

A previously healthy 3-year-old boy presents with colicky abdominal pain and non-bilious vomiting. Physical exam reveals a palpable abdominal mass in the RUQ. An ultrasound is performed, revealing the finding shown. What is the MOST likely lead point?

A 6-week-old male infant presents to the emergency department with a 2-week history of progressively worsening non-bilious vomiting, which has become projectile over the past few days. His parents report he is feeding eagerly but vomits most feeds shortly after completion. He has had fewer wet nappies than usual and appears more lethargic. On examination, he is irritable but consolable. His weight is below the 3rd percentile, having dropped from the 10th percentile at birth. Vital signs are: Temperature 36.8°C, Heart Rate 155 bpm, Respiratory Rate 40 bpm, Blood Pressure 85/50 mmHg, Oxygen Saturation 98% on room air. Capillary refill time is 3 seconds. Abdominal examination reveals a soft, non-distended abdomen with active bowel sounds; no palpable masses are appreciated. Initial blood gas shows pH 7.52, pCO2 40 mmHg, Bicarbonate 32 mmol/L, Na+ 132 mmol/L, K+ 3.0 mmol/L, Cl- 88 mmol/L. A point-of-care ultrasound was performed, and the image provided was obtained. Considering the clinical presentation, the laboratory results, and the findings demonstrated in the image, which of the following represents the most appropriate immediate therapeutic intervention?

A previously well 3-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with a 12-hour history of sudden onset, intermittent, severe, colicky abdominal pain, associated with non-bilious vomiting. Between episodes, he appears lethargic and pale. His vital signs are stable: HR 110, BP 90/60, RR 24, Temp 37.2. Abdominal examination reveals mild distension and tenderness, but no guarding or rebound. Bowel sounds are present. A point-of-care ultrasound is performed by the emergency physician. Considering the clinical presentation, the patient's current stable vital signs, and the specific findings demonstrated in the provided ultrasound image, which of the following represents the single most appropriate immediate next step in the management of this patient in an Australian tertiary paediatric centre?

A 3-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with a 12-hour history of sudden onset, severe, colicky abdominal pain, drawing his legs up, and non-bilious vomiting. His parents report he has been listless between episodes and had a small amount of red jelly-like stool earlier. Vitals: T 37.2°C, HR 110, RR 24, BP 95/60, Sats 98% on air. Abdominal examination reveals tenderness in the right upper quadrant and a palpable mass. Bowel sounds are diminished. A point-of-care ultrasound is performed. Based on the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the provided ultrasound image, what is the most appropriate initial management step for this patient?

A 6-week-old presents with projectile vomiting after feeds. An ultrasound is performed (shown). What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 68-year-old man with a history of poorly controlled type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and chronic kidney disease (stage 3) presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain and vomiting. On examination, he has a distended abdomen with diffuse tenderness and guarding. His vital signs show a blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg, heart rate of 110 bpm, and a temperature of 38.5°C. Laboratory tests reveal leukocytosis, elevated serum lactate, and worsening renal function. A CT scan of the abdomen shows pneumoperitoneum and free fluid, suggesting perforated viscus. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 3-week-old male presents with projectile vomiting after feeds. An upper GI series is performed (image shown). What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 72-year-old male presents with a painful, irreducible right groin mass. He reports vomiting and abdominal distension. His vitals are: HR 110, BP 100/60, RR 22, SpO2 96% RA. The provided image was obtained. What is the next step?

A 32-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain that started suddenly 6 hours ago. The pain is located in the right lower quadrant and is associated with nausea and vomiting. On examination, he has rebound tenderness and guarding in the right lower quadrant. His temperature is 37.8°C, heart rate is 110 beats per minute, and blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg. A CT scan of the abdomen shows an inflamed appendix with surrounding fat stranding. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 3-year-old boy presents with sudden onset, intermittent, severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and lethargy. On examination, he is pale and has a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. Vitals are stable. An ultrasound is performed, shown above. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings in the image, what is the most appropriate initial management step?

A 65-year-old male presents with groin pain and vomiting. The provided image was taken. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 6-month-old baby has abdominal swelling and vomiting. An abdominal X-ray shows a 'double bubble' sign. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 6-week-old male presents with persistent non-bilious vomiting after feeding. He appears hungry and has lost weight since birth. Examination reveals visible peristaltic waves across the abdomen. An abdominal ultrasound is performed, as shown. What is the most likely acid-base disturbance seen in this patient?

A 40-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe headache, nausea, and vomiting. He describes the headache as the worst he has ever experienced. He has a history of hypertension but is otherwise healthy. On examination, he is alert but in distress, with a blood pressure of 180/110 mmHg, heart rate of 90 bpm, and respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute. Neurological examination reveals neck stiffness but no focal neurological deficits. A CT scan of the head shows no acute intracranial hemorrhage. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 3-week-old male infant presents with persistent, non-bilious projectile vomiting after each feed. He appears hungry and eagerly accepts the bottle, but vomits shortly after. On examination, mild dehydration is noted. An abdominal X-ray is ordered, the relevant image is attached. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 5-week-old male infant presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of non-bilious, projectile vomiting after each feed. He is otherwise well-appearing and afebrile. His mother reports that he is feeding well but seems increasingly hungry after vomiting. On examination, the infant is alert and active, with slightly dry mucous membranes. Abdominal examination is unremarkable, with no palpable masses. An ultrasound of the abdomen is performed, the image of which is shown. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 3-year-old boy presents with a 12-hour history of intermittent, severe abdominal pain, non-bilious vomiting, and decreased activity. Parents report redcurrant jelly stool. On exam, a palpable mass is noted. Vitals are stable. An ultrasound is performed (shown above). Considering the clinical picture and the image findings, which non-surgical intervention is indicated?

A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe headache, nausea, and vomiting. He has a history of hypertension and is currently on amlodipine. On examination, he is drowsy but arousable, with a blood pressure of 210/120 mmHg and a heart rate of 90 bpm. Neurological examination reveals a left-sided hemiparesis and a right-sided facial droop. A CT scan of the head shows a hyperdense lesion in the right basal ganglia with surrounding edema. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management step?

A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe headache, nausea, and vomiting. He describes the headache as the worst he has ever experienced. He has a history of hypertension but is otherwise healthy. On examination, he is alert but in distress due to the headache. His blood pressure is 180/110 mmHg, heart rate is 90 bpm, and he has no focal neurological deficits. A CT scan of the head shows no acute intracranial hemorrhage. What is the next best step in management?

A neonate is born at term following an uneventful pregnancy. Immediately after birth, the baby develops bilious vomiting. Abdominal examination reveals epigastric distension, but the rest of the abdomen is scaphoid. An abdominal X-ray is performed. Which of the following findings on the abdominal X-ray would be most consistent with the likely diagnosis?

A 68-year-old male presents to the ED with colicky abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. He reports no bowel movements for 3 days. His abdomen is distended and tender. An X-ray is performed. Given the findings, what is the MOST likely underlying cause of this patient's condition?

A 63-year-old male presents with postprandial vomiting and persistent retrosternal discomfort. He reports feeling full quickly after eating only small amounts. An abdominal CT scan is performed, the axial view is shown. What is the MOST likely underlying mechanism contributing to this patient's symptoms?

A 6-week-old male infant presents with a 2-week history of progressively worsening projectile non-bilious vomiting after feeds. He has lost weight and appears lethargic. Initial bloods show a hypochloremic, hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis. After fluid resuscitation, the image is obtained. What is the most appropriate definitive management for this patient?

A 32-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of intermittent abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting for the past 24 hours. He reports passing a small amount of blood in his stool this morning. He denies any fever or chills. His past medical history is significant for multiple cutaneous hemangiomas, which he has had since childhood. On physical examination, his abdomen is mildly distended and tender to palpation in the periumbilical region. Bowel sounds are hyperactive. The patient is hemodynamically stable. A CT scan of the abdomen is performed, the results of which are shown. Given the clinical presentation and imaging findings, what is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 28-year-old female presents to the ED with acute onset right lower quadrant pain. She reports nausea and vomiting. Her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago, and she denies any vaginal bleeding. She is hemodynamically stable. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed, with a relevant image shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 28-year-old female presents to the ED with acute onset right lower quadrant pain. She reports nausea and vomiting. Her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago, and she denies any vaginal bleeding. She is hemodynamically stable. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed, with a relevant image shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 2-year-old boy presents with abdominal pain and vomiting. An ultrasound is performed, as shown. What is the MOST likely lead point for this condition?

A 6-week-old male infant presents to the emergency department with a 2-week history of progressively worsening non-bilious vomiting, which has become projectile over the past few days. His parents report he is feeding eagerly but vomits most feeds shortly after completion. He has had fewer wet nappies than usual and appears more lethargic. On examination, he is irritable but consolable. His weight is below the 3rd percentile, having dropped from the 10th percentile at birth. Vital signs are: Temperature 36.8°C, Heart Rate 155 bpm, Respiratory Rate 40 bpm, Blood Pressure 85/50 mmHg, Oxygen Saturation 98% on room air. Capillary refill time is 3 seconds. Abdominal examination reveals a soft, non-distended abdomen with active bowel sounds; no palpable masses are appreciated. Initial blood gas shows pH 7.52, pCO2 40 mmHg, Bicarbonate 32 mmol/L, Na+ 132 mmol/L, K+ 3.0 mmol/L, Cl- 88 mmol/L. A point-of-care ultrasound was performed, and the image provided was obtained. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the image, what is the most appropriate immediate next step in the management of this infant?

A 6-week-old male infant presents to the emergency department with a 5-day history of progressively worsening non-bilious vomiting, which has become projectile over the past 48 hours. He is exclusively formula-fed and his parents report decreased wet nappies and increased irritability. On examination, he is alert but appears slightly lethargic. His weight is below his birth weight. Capillary refill time is 3 seconds. Vitals are: HR 150 bpm, RR 40 bpm, T 37.2°C, BP 85/50 mmHg. Abdominal examination is soft, non-distended, and no masses are definitely palpable. Initial blood gas shows pH 7.52, pCO2 40 mmHg, HCO3 32 mmol/L, Na+ 130 mmol/L, K+ 3.0 mmol/L, Cl- 85 mmol/L. Urea and creatinine are mildly elevated. An imaging study was performed, shown above. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings on the imaging study, which of the following is the most critical immediate management step?

A 3-year-old boy presents with sudden onset, intermittent, severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and lethargy. Examination reveals a palpable mass. Vitals stable. Ultrasound performed. Based on the clinical presentation and the provided image, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 5-week-old male presents with non-bilious projectile vomiting. An ultrasound is performed (shown). What acid-base disturbance is MOST likely?

A 6-week-old infant presents with a 1-week history of increasing frequency of non-bilious, projectile vomiting occurring shortly after feeds. He has lost some weight since his last check-up. Examination is otherwise unremarkable. An ultrasound is performed, shown in the image. Based on the clinical presentation and the provided image, which of the following electrolyte abnormalities is the most likely consequence if this condition remains untreated?

A 3-week-old male presents with projectile vomiting after each feed. He appears hungry and eagerly feeds, but vomits shortly after. An abdominal X-ray is ordered, the result of which is shown. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 3-year-old boy presents with sudden onset intermittent severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and lethargy. On examination, he is pale but haemodynamically stable. Abdominal examination reveals a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. An ultrasound is performed (image provided). What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 68-year-old male presents to the ED with abdominal distension, obstipation, and vomiting. He reports a history of multiple abdominal surgeries. An upright abdominal X-ray is performed. Based on the image, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 5-week-old male presents with projectile vomiting after feeds. He is irritable and appears dehydrated. An upper GI contrast study is performed, with relevant images attached. What is the MOST likely underlying cause?

A 45-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with acute onset of severe right upper quadrant abdominal pain radiating to the back, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. She has a history of gallstones but no previous surgeries. On examination, she is febrile with a temperature of 38.5°C, her heart rate is 110 bpm, and she has tenderness in the right upper quadrant with a positive Murphy's sign. Laboratory tests reveal elevated white blood cell count, elevated liver enzymes, and elevated serum amylase. An abdominal ultrasound shows gallstones and a thickened gallbladder wall. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 75-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of worsening colicky abdominal pain, nausea, and multiple episodes of bilious vomiting. She reports no passage of flatus or stool for the past 18 hours. Her past medical history includes an open appendectomy 30 years ago and a hysterectomy 10 years ago. On examination, she is afebrile, heart rate 92 bpm, blood pressure 130/80 mmHg, respiratory rate 18/min, oxygen saturation 98% on room air. Her abdomen is distended and diffusely tender to palpation, with high-pitched tinkling bowel sounds on auscultation. A plain abdominal X-ray series, including the image provided, was obtained. Considering the patient's clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the provided image, which of the following represents the most appropriate immediate next step in her management?

A 4-week-old male presents with persistent projectile vomiting after feeding. He is otherwise well-appearing. An upper GI series is performed, with relevant images attached. What acid-base disturbance is MOST likely present?

A 3-week-old male infant is brought to the emergency department by his parents. They report that he has been experiencing projectile vomiting after every feed for the past week. The vomiting is non-bilious. He appears dehydrated, with sunken fontanelles and decreased skin turgor. His weight has decreased since his last check-up. An abdominal X-ray is ordered, the results of which are shown. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 68-year-old male with a history of reflux presents with epigastric pain and vomiting. An X-ray is performed (shown). What is the most likely complication?

A 6-week-old male infant presents with a 1-week history of progressively worsening non-bilious vomiting, often projectile, occurring shortly after feeds. His parents report he is constantly hungry and irritable but has had poor weight gain. On examination, he is alert but appears thin. Vital signs are stable. Abdominal examination is soft, non-tender, with no palpable mass. An abdominal ultrasound is performed, the image of which is shown. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings depicted, what is the most appropriate definitive management strategy after initial fluid and electrolyte correction?

A 72-year-old male with a history of diverticulitis presents with severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and inability to pass flatus for 24 hours. An upright abdominal X-ray is performed. Based on the image, what is the MOST likely underlying cause?

A 4-week-old male presents with projectile vomiting after feeding. He is irritable and appears dehydrated. An upper GI series is performed, as shown. After addressing immediate concerns, what is the MOST appropriate next step?

A 28-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe right lower abdominal pain. She reports nausea and vomiting but denies fever or urinary symptoms. Her last menstrual period was two weeks ago, and she is sexually active. On examination, she has tenderness in the right lower quadrant with guarding. A pelvic ultrasound reveals a 5 cm right ovarian cyst with free fluid in the pelvis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 3-year-old boy presents with intermittent severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and lethargy. On examination, he is afebrile with a soft but slightly distended abdomen. An ultrasound is performed (image provided). Based on the clinical presentation and the image findings, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 3-year-old boy presents with sudden onset intermittent severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and lethargy. On examination, he is pale but haemodynamically stable. Abdominal examination reveals a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. An ultrasound is performed (image provided). What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 3-year-old boy presents with sudden onset intermittent severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and lethargy. On examination, he is pale and has a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. An ultrasound is performed (image provided). Based on this finding, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 6-week-old male presents with projectile vomiting after feeds. He is otherwise well-appearing, with normal vital signs. An abdominal ultrasound is performed (image attached). What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 3-year-old boy presents with intermittent abdominal pain, vomiting, and currant jelly stools. An ultrasound is performed, revealing the image shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?