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vomiting

Practice targeted AMC-style multiple-choice questions on vomiting.

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An ultrasound showing target sign which is a characteristic finding for intussusception on ultrasound, this ultrasound is for a 3 year old boy with intestinal intussusception.
Image by Frank Gaillard CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A previously healthy 3-year-old boy presents with colicky abdominal pain and non-bilious vomiting. Physical exam reveals a palpable abdominal mass in the RUQ. An ultrasound is performed, revealing the finding shown. What is the MOST likely lead point?

A. Polyp
B. Appendix
C. Lymphoma
D. Ileocolic valve
E. Meckel's diverticulum
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Pyloric stenosis as seen on ultrasound in a 6 week old
Image by Dr Laughlin Dawes CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 6-week-old male infant presents to the emergency department with a 2-week history of progressively worsening non-bilious vomiting, which has become projectile over the past few days. His parents report he is feeding eagerly but vomits most feeds shortly after completion. He has had fewer wet nappies than usual and appears more lethargic. On examination, he is irritable but consolable. His weight is below the 3rd percentile, having dropped from the 10th percentile at birth. Vital signs are: Temperature 36.8°C, Heart Rate 155 bpm, Respiratory Rate 40 bpm, Blood Pressure 85/50 mmHg, Oxygen Saturation 98% on room air. Capillary refill time is 3 seconds. Abdominal examination reveals a soft, non-distended abdomen with active bowel sounds; no palpable masses are appreciated. Initial blood gas shows pH 7.52, pCO2 40 mmHg, Bicarbonate 32 mmol/L, Na+ 132 mmol/L, K+ 3.0 mmol/L, Cl- 88 mmol/L. A point-of-care ultrasound was performed, and the image provided was obtained. Considering the clinical presentation, the laboratory results, and the findings demonstrated in the image, which of the following represents the most appropriate immediate therapeutic intervention?

A. Intravenous administration of 5% dextrose in 0.45% sodium chloride.
B. Oral rehydration therapy with an electrolyte solution.
C. Urgent surgical consultation for pyloromyotomy without prior fluid resuscitation.
D. Placement of a nasogastric tube for continuous gastric drainage.
E. Intravenous administration of 0.9% sodium chloride with added potassium chloride.
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An ultrasound showing target sign which is a characteristic finding for intussusception on ultrasound, this ultrasound is for a 3 year old boy with intestinal intussusception.
Image by Frank Gaillard CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A previously well 3-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with a 12-hour history of sudden onset, intermittent, severe, colicky abdominal pain, associated with non-bilious vomiting. Between episodes, he appears lethargic and pale. His vital signs are stable: HR 110, BP 90/60, RR 24, Temp 37.2. Abdominal examination reveals mild distension and tenderness, but no guarding or rebound. Bowel sounds are present. A point-of-care ultrasound is performed by the emergency physician. Considering the clinical presentation, the patient's current stable vital signs, and the specific findings demonstrated in the provided ultrasound image, which of the following represents the single most appropriate immediate next step in the management of this patient in an Australian tertiary paediatric centre?

A. Proceed directly to surgical exploration.
B. Attempt pneumatic or hydrostatic reduction under fluoroscopic guidance.
C. Obtain a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis.
D. Administer IV fluids and observe for resolution.
E. Discharge home with pain relief and follow-up.
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An ultrasound showing target sign which is a characteristic finding for intussusception on ultrasound, this ultrasound is for a 3 year old boy with intestinal intussusception.
Image by Frank Gaillard CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 3-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with a 12-hour history of sudden onset, severe, colicky abdominal pain, drawing his legs up, and non-bilious vomiting. His parents report he has been listless between episodes and had a small amount of red jelly-like stool earlier. Vitals: T 37.2°C, HR 110, RR 24, BP 95/60, Sats 98% on air. Abdominal examination reveals tenderness in the right upper quadrant and a palpable mass. Bowel sounds are diminished. A point-of-care ultrasound is performed. Based on the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the provided ultrasound image, what is the most appropriate initial management step for this patient?

A. Initiate intravenous antibiotics and observe for improvement.
B. Proceed directly to urgent surgical exploration.
C. Attempt pneumatic or hydrostatic reduction under fluoroscopic guidance.
D. Administer opioid analgesia and arrange for outpatient follow-up.
E. Obtain a contrast-enhanced CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis.
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Pyloric stenosis as seen on ultrasound in a 6 week old
Image by Dr Laughlin Dawes CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 6-week-old presents with projectile vomiting after feeds. An ultrasound is performed (shown). What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Trial of thickened feeds
B. Upper endoscopy with biopsy
C. Reassurance and close follow-up
D. Start erythromycin
E. Surgical consultation for pyloromyotomy
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A 68-year-old man with a history of poorly controlled type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and chronic kidney disease (stage 3) presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain and vomiting. On examination, he has a distended abdomen with diffuse tenderness and guarding. His vital signs show a blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg, heart rate of 110 bpm, and a temperature of 38.5°C. Laboratory tests reveal leukocytosis, elevated serum lactate, and worsening renal function. A CT scan of the abdomen shows pneumoperitoneum and free fluid, suggesting perforated viscus. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Immediate exploratory laparotomy
B. Administer intravenous fluids and reassess in 2 hours
C. Initiate broad-spectrum antibiotics and observe
D. Consult nephrology for dialysis before surgery
E. Perform a diagnostic laparoscopy
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Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Image by Adityagupta95 CC0 1.0 · Source

A 3-week-old male presents with projectile vomiting after feeds. An upper GI series is performed (image shown). What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Barium swallow study
B. Surgical pyloromyotomy
C. Medical management with erythromycin
D. Trial of thickened feeds
E. Upper endoscopy with biopsy
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An incarcerated inguinal hernia as seen on CT
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male presents with a painful, irreducible right groin mass. He reports vomiting and abdominal distension. His vitals are: HR 110, BP 100/60, RR 22, SpO2 96% RA. The provided image was obtained. What is the next step?

A. Attempt manual reduction with sedation
B. Surgical consultation for emergent repair
C. Order a repeat CT scan with contrast in 6 hours
D. Start a clear liquid diet
E. Administer intravenous antibiotics
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A 32-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain that started suddenly 6 hours ago. The pain is located in the right lower quadrant and is associated with nausea and vomiting. On examination, he has rebound tenderness and guarding in the right lower quadrant. His temperature is 37.8°C, heart rate is 110 beats per minute, and blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg. A CT scan of the abdomen shows an inflamed appendix with surrounding fat stranding. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Percutaneous drainage
B. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
C. Appendectomy
D. Observation and repeat imaging
E. Intravenous antibiotics only
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An ultrasound showing target sign which is a characteristic finding for intussusception on ultrasound, this ultrasound is for a 3 year old boy with intestinal intussusception.
Image by Frank Gaillard CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 3-year-old boy presents with sudden onset, intermittent, severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and lethargy. On examination, he is pale and has a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. Vitals are stable. An ultrasound is performed, shown above. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings in the image, what is the most appropriate initial management step?

A. Admit for intravenous fluids and serial abdominal examinations
B. Perform an upper gastrointestinal series with small bowel follow-through
C. Obtain a contrast-enhanced CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis
D. Pneumatic or hydrostatic reduction under fluoroscopy
E. Urgent laparotomy for manual reduction
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An incarcerated inguinal hernia as seen on CT
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 65-year-old male presents with groin pain and vomiting. The provided image was taken. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Discharge with stool softeners
B. Administer intravenous antibiotics
C. Apply ice packs to the groin
D. Start a clear liquid diet
E. Surgical consultation for possible bowel resection
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A 6-month-old baby has abdominal swelling and vomiting. An abdominal X-ray shows a 'double bubble' sign. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Pyloric stenosis
B. Duodenal atresia
C. Meconium ileus
D. Intussusception
E. Malrotation with volvulus.
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Pyloric stenosis as seen on ultrasound in a 6 week old
Image by Dr Laughlin Dawes CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 6-week-old male presents with persistent non-bilious vomiting after feeding. He appears hungry and has lost weight since birth. Examination reveals visible peristaltic waves across the abdomen. An abdominal ultrasound is performed, as shown. What is the most likely acid-base disturbance seen in this patient?

A. Metabolic alkalosis
B. Respiratory acidosis
C. Normal acid-base balance
D. Respiratory alkalosis
E. Metabolic acidosis
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A 40-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe headache, nausea, and vomiting. He describes the headache as the worst he has ever experienced. He has a history of hypertension but is otherwise healthy. On examination, he is alert but in distress, with a blood pressure of 180/110 mmHg, heart rate of 90 bpm, and respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute. Neurological examination reveals neck stiffness but no focal neurological deficits. A CT scan of the head shows no acute intracranial hemorrhage. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Lumbar puncture
B. Administer analgesics and observe
C. Start antihypertensive therapy
D. MRI of the brain
E. Repeat CT scan with contrast
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Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Image by Adityagupta95 CC0 1.0 · Source

A 3-week-old male infant presents with persistent, non-bilious projectile vomiting after each feed. He appears hungry and eagerly accepts the bottle, but vomits shortly after. On examination, mild dehydration is noted. An abdominal X-ray is ordered, the relevant image is attached. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Perform an upper endoscopy
B. Administer intravenous ondansetron
C. Initiate a course of erythromycin
D. Surgical pyloromyotomy
E. Start a trial of thickened feeds
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Pyloric stenosis as seen on ultrasound in a 6 week old
Image by Dr Laughlin Dawes CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 5-week-old male infant presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of non-bilious, projectile vomiting after each feed. He is otherwise well-appearing and afebrile. His mother reports that he is feeding well but seems increasingly hungry after vomiting. On examination, the infant is alert and active, with slightly dry mucous membranes. Abdominal examination is unremarkable, with no palpable masses. An ultrasound of the abdomen is performed, the image of which is shown. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Surgical consultation for pyloromyotomy
B. Administer intravenous ondansetron and observe
C. Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy with biopsy
D. Discharge home with instructions for frequent small-volume feeds
E. Initiate a trial of thickened feeds
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An ultrasound showing target sign which is a characteristic finding for intussusception on ultrasound, this ultrasound is for a 3 year old boy with intestinal intussusception.
Image by Frank Gaillard CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 3-year-old boy presents with a 12-hour history of intermittent, severe abdominal pain, non-bilious vomiting, and decreased activity. Parents report redcurrant jelly stool. On exam, a palpable mass is noted. Vitals are stable. An ultrasound is performed (shown above). Considering the clinical picture and the image findings, which non-surgical intervention is indicated?

A. Urgent surgical exploration
B. Barium enema reduction
C. Pneumatic reduction under fluoroscopic guidance
D. Intravenous fluid resuscitation and observation
E. Administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics
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A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe headache, nausea, and vomiting. He has a history of hypertension and is currently on amlodipine. On examination, he is drowsy but arousable, with a blood pressure of 210/120 mmHg and a heart rate of 90 bpm. Neurological examination reveals a left-sided hemiparesis and a right-sided facial droop. A CT scan of the head shows a hyperdense lesion in the right basal ganglia with surrounding edema. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management step?

A. Intravenous labetalol to lower blood pressure
B. Oral aspirin to prevent further clot formation
C. Immediate surgical evacuation of the hematoma
D. Intravenous alteplase for thrombolysis
E. Intravenous mannitol to reduce intracranial pressure
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A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe headache, nausea, and vomiting. He describes the headache as the worst he has ever experienced. He has a history of hypertension but is otherwise healthy. On examination, he is alert but in distress due to the headache. His blood pressure is 180/110 mmHg, heart rate is 90 bpm, and he has no focal neurological deficits. A CT scan of the head shows no acute intracranial hemorrhage. What is the next best step in management?

A. Administer analgesics and observe
B. Repeat CT scan with contrast
C. MRI of the brain
D. Lumbar puncture
E. Start antihypertensive therapy
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A neonate is born at term following an uneventful pregnancy. Immediately after birth, the baby develops bilious vomiting. Abdominal examination reveals epigastric distension, but the rest of the abdomen is scaphoid. An abdominal X-ray is performed. Which of the following findings on the abdominal X-ray would be most consistent with the likely diagnosis?

A. Double-bubble sign
B. Multiple air-fluid levels throughout the abdomen
C. Free air under the diaphragm
D. Pneumatosis intestinalis
E. Ground glass appearance
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Upright X-ray demonstrating small bowel obstruction
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 68-year-old male presents to the ED with colicky abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. He reports no bowel movements for 3 days. His abdomen is distended and tender. An X-ray is performed. Given the findings, what is the MOST likely underlying cause of this patient's condition?

A. Hernia
B. Volvulus
C. Adhesions from prior surgery
D. Intussusception
E. Diverticulitis
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Giant hiatal hernia, CT image. 63 year old man.
Image by Jmarchn CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 63-year-old male presents with postprandial vomiting and persistent retrosternal discomfort. He reports feeling full quickly after eating only small amounts. An abdominal CT scan is performed, the axial view is shown. What is the MOST likely underlying mechanism contributing to this patient's symptoms?

A. Gastric malignancy
B. Pyloric stenosis
C. Esophageal dysmotility
D. Mechanical obstruction of the gastric outflow
E. Increased gastric acid production
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Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Image by Adityagupta95 CC0 1.0 · Source

A 6-week-old male infant presents with a 2-week history of progressively worsening projectile non-bilious vomiting after feeds. He has lost weight and appears lethargic. Initial bloods show a hypochloremic, hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis. After fluid resuscitation, the image is obtained. What is the most appropriate definitive management for this patient?

A. Further imaging with abdominal ultrasound
B. Placement of nasogastric tube for gastric decompression
C. Trial of medical management with atropine
D. Discharge home with thickened feeds and anti-reflux medication
E. Surgical pyloromyotomy
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Synchronous multiple small bowel intussusceptions in an adult with blue rubber bleb naevus syndrome. CT scan of abdomen showing i) multiple intussusceptions demonstrating doughnut signs (white arrows), intussusceptiens [A], intussusceptum [B], distended loop of small

bowel [C] and ii) haemangioma of right quadratus lumborum muscle (dark arrow).
Image by Lee C, Debnath D, Whitburn T, Farrugia M, Gonzalez F CC BY 2.0 · Source

A 32-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of intermittent abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting for the past 24 hours. He reports passing a small amount of blood in his stool this morning. He denies any fever or chills. His past medical history is significant for multiple cutaneous hemangiomas, which he has had since childhood. On physical examination, his abdomen is mildly distended and tender to palpation in the periumbilical region. Bowel sounds are hyperactive. The patient is hemodynamically stable. A CT scan of the abdomen is performed, the results of which are shown. Given the clinical presentation and imaging findings, what is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Initiation of high-dose corticosteroids
B. Surgical exploration
C. Colonoscopy with biopsy
D. Barium enema
E. Observation with serial abdominal examinations
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Ovarian Cyst
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 28-year-old female presents to the ED with acute onset right lower quadrant pain. She reports nausea and vomiting. Her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago, and she denies any vaginal bleeding. She is hemodynamically stable. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed, with a relevant image shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Emergency hysterectomy
B. Laparoscopic cystectomy
C. Administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics
D. Initiate anticoagulation therapy
E. Expectant management with analgesia
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Ovarian Cyst
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 28-year-old female presents to the ED with acute onset right lower quadrant pain. She reports nausea and vomiting. Her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago, and she denies any vaginal bleeding. She is hemodynamically stable. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed, with a relevant image shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Laparoscopic cystectomy
B. Immediate laparotomy
C. Expectant management with analgesia
D. Oral contraceptive pills
E. Serum CA-125 level
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An ultrasound showing target sign which is a characteristic finding for intussusception on ultrasound, this ultrasound is for a 3 year old boy with intestinal intussusception.
Image by Frank Gaillard CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 2-year-old boy presents with abdominal pain and vomiting. An ultrasound is performed, as shown. What is the MOST likely lead point for this condition?

A. Ileocolic junction
B. Polyp
C. Appendix
D. Meckel's diverticulum
E. Duodenal duplication cyst
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Pyloric stenosis as seen on ultrasound in a 6 week old
Image by Dr Laughlin Dawes CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 6-week-old male infant presents to the emergency department with a 2-week history of progressively worsening non-bilious vomiting, which has become projectile over the past few days. His parents report he is feeding eagerly but vomits most feeds shortly after completion. He has had fewer wet nappies than usual and appears more lethargic. On examination, he is irritable but consolable. His weight is below the 3rd percentile, having dropped from the 10th percentile at birth. Vital signs are: Temperature 36.8°C, Heart Rate 155 bpm, Respiratory Rate 40 bpm, Blood Pressure 85/50 mmHg, Oxygen Saturation 98% on room air. Capillary refill time is 3 seconds. Abdominal examination reveals a soft, non-distended abdomen with active bowel sounds; no palpable masses are appreciated. Initial blood gas shows pH 7.52, pCO2 40 mmHg, Bicarbonate 32 mmol/L, Na+ 132 mmol/L, K+ 3.0 mmol/L, Cl- 88 mmol/L. A point-of-care ultrasound was performed, and the image provided was obtained. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the image, what is the most appropriate immediate next step in the management of this infant?

A. Administer intravenous ondansetron and observe for improvement in vomiting.
B. Discharge home with instructions for smaller, more frequent feeds and review by the general practitioner in 24 hours.
C. Insert a nasogastric tube for continuous drainage and commence total parenteral nutrition.
D. Obtain an urgent upper gastrointestinal contrast study to confirm the diagnosis and assess for malrotation.
E. Initiate intravenous fluid resuscitation with 0.9% sodium chloride and potassium chloride supplementation, and arrange urgent surgical consultation.
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Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Image by Adityagupta95 CC0 1.0 · Source

A 6-week-old male infant presents to the emergency department with a 5-day history of progressively worsening non-bilious vomiting, which has become projectile over the past 48 hours. He is exclusively formula-fed and his parents report decreased wet nappies and increased irritability. On examination, he is alert but appears slightly lethargic. His weight is below his birth weight. Capillary refill time is 3 seconds. Vitals are: HR 150 bpm, RR 40 bpm, T 37.2°C, BP 85/50 mmHg. Abdominal examination is soft, non-distended, and no masses are definitely palpable. Initial blood gas shows pH 7.52, pCO2 40 mmHg, HCO3 32 mmol/L, Na+ 130 mmol/L, K+ 3.0 mmol/L, Cl- 85 mmol/L. Urea and creatinine are mildly elevated. An imaging study was performed, shown above. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings on the imaging study, which of the following is the most critical immediate management step?

A. Initiate intravenous fluid resuscitation with 0.9% sodium chloride and potassium supplementation.
B. Insert a nasogastric tube for gastric decompression.
C. Administer intravenous ondansetron to control vomiting.
D. Arrange for urgent surgical consultation for pyloromyotomy.
E. Obtain a paediatric surgical ultrasound of the abdomen.
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An ultrasound showing target sign which is a characteristic finding for intussusception on ultrasound, this ultrasound is for a 3 year old boy with intestinal intussusception.
Image by Frank Gaillard CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 3-year-old boy presents with sudden onset, intermittent, severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and lethargy. Examination reveals a palpable mass. Vitals stable. Ultrasound performed. Based on the clinical presentation and the provided image, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Urgent surgical exploration
B. Pneumatic reduction under fluoroscopy
C. Abdominal CT scan with contrast
D. Admission for observation and IV fluids
E. Administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics
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Pyloric stenosis as seen on ultrasound in a 6 week old
Image by Dr Laughlin Dawes CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 5-week-old male presents with non-bilious projectile vomiting. An ultrasound is performed (shown). What acid-base disturbance is MOST likely?

A. Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis
B. Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
E. Normal acid-base balance
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Pyloric stenosis as seen on ultrasound in a 6 week old
Image by Dr Laughlin Dawes CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 6-week-old infant presents with a 1-week history of increasing frequency of non-bilious, projectile vomiting occurring shortly after feeds. He has lost some weight since his last check-up. Examination is otherwise unremarkable. An ultrasound is performed, shown in the image. Based on the clinical presentation and the provided image, which of the following electrolyte abnormalities is the most likely consequence if this condition remains untreated?

A. Hypernatremic metabolic acidosis
B. Hyponatremic respiratory alkalosis
C. Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis
D. Hypokalemic respiratory acidosis
E. Hypercalcemic metabolic alkalosis
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Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Image by Adityagupta95 CC0 1.0 · Source

A 3-week-old male presents with projectile vomiting after each feed. He appears hungry and eagerly feeds, but vomits shortly after. An abdominal X-ray is ordered, the result of which is shown. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Surgical pyloromyotomy
B. Upper endoscopy with biopsy
C. Start erythromycin
D. Administer ondansetron
E. Trial of thickened feeds
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An ultrasound showing target sign which is a characteristic finding for intussusception on ultrasound, this ultrasound is for a 3 year old boy with intestinal intussusception.
Image by Frank Gaillard CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 3-year-old boy presents with sudden onset intermittent severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and lethargy. On examination, he is pale but haemodynamically stable. Abdominal examination reveals a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. An ultrasound is performed (image provided). What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics
B. Admission for observation and IV fluids
C. Abdominal CT scan with contrast
D. Immediate surgical exploration
E. Air or hydrostatic enema reduction
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Upright X-ray demonstrating small bowel obstruction
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 68-year-old male presents to the ED with abdominal distension, obstipation, and vomiting. He reports a history of multiple abdominal surgeries. An upright abdominal X-ray is performed. Based on the image, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Barium enema
B. CT abdomen with IV contrast
C. Colonoscopy
D. Stool softeners and increased oral fluids
E. Surgical consultation
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Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Image by Adityagupta95 CC0 1.0 · Source

A 5-week-old male presents with projectile vomiting after feeds. He is irritable and appears dehydrated. An upper GI contrast study is performed, with relevant images attached. What is the MOST likely underlying cause?

A. Malrotation with volvulus
B. Duodenal atresia
C. Gastroesophageal reflux
D. Hypertrophy of the pyloric sphincter
E. Esophageal stricture
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A 45-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with acute onset of severe right upper quadrant abdominal pain radiating to the back, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. She has a history of gallstones but no previous surgeries. On examination, she is febrile with a temperature of 38.5°C, her heart rate is 110 bpm, and she has tenderness in the right upper quadrant with a positive Murphy's sign. Laboratory tests reveal elevated white blood cell count, elevated liver enzymes, and elevated serum amylase. An abdominal ultrasound shows gallstones and a thickened gallbladder wall. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Intravenous antibiotics and cholecystectomy
B. Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP)
C. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)
D. Observation and pain management
E. Percutaneous cholecystostomy
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Upright X-ray demonstrating small bowel obstruction
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 75-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of worsening colicky abdominal pain, nausea, and multiple episodes of bilious vomiting. She reports no passage of flatus or stool for the past 18 hours. Her past medical history includes an open appendectomy 30 years ago and a hysterectomy 10 years ago. On examination, she is afebrile, heart rate 92 bpm, blood pressure 130/80 mmHg, respiratory rate 18/min, oxygen saturation 98% on room air. Her abdomen is distended and diffusely tender to palpation, with high-pitched tinkling bowel sounds on auscultation. A plain abdominal X-ray series, including the image provided, was obtained. Considering the patient's clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the provided image, which of the following represents the most appropriate immediate next step in her management?

A. Perform an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy.
B. Arrange for an urgent contrast-enhanced computed tomography scan of the abdomen and pelvis.
C. Discharge the patient home with oral analgesia and instructions to return if symptoms worsen.
D. Administer a high-dose osmotic laxative orally.
E. Proceed directly to exploratory laparotomy.
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Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Image by Adityagupta95 CC0 1.0 · Source

A 4-week-old male presents with persistent projectile vomiting after feeding. He is otherwise well-appearing. An upper GI series is performed, with relevant images attached. What acid-base disturbance is MOST likely present?

A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Normal acid-base balance
C. Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis
D. Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis
E. Respiratory alkalosis
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Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Image by Adityagupta95 CC0 1.0 · Source

A 3-week-old male infant is brought to the emergency department by his parents. They report that he has been experiencing projectile vomiting after every feed for the past week. The vomiting is non-bilious. He appears dehydrated, with sunken fontanelles and decreased skin turgor. His weight has decreased since his last check-up. An abdominal X-ray is ordered, the results of which are shown. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Surgical consultation for pyloromyotomy
B. Discharge home with oral rehydration solution
C. Perform an upper endoscopy
D. Start feeds with thickened formula
E. Administer intravenous antibiotics
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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 68-year-old male with a history of reflux presents with epigastric pain and vomiting. An X-ray is performed (shown). What is the most likely complication?

A. Gastric volvulus
B. Pericarditis
C. Esophageal stricture
D. Aortic dissection
E. Pneumonia
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Pyloric stenosis as seen on ultrasound in a 6 week old
Image by Dr Laughlin Dawes CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 6-week-old male infant presents with a 1-week history of progressively worsening non-bilious vomiting, often projectile, occurring shortly after feeds. His parents report he is constantly hungry and irritable but has had poor weight gain. On examination, he is alert but appears thin. Vital signs are stable. Abdominal examination is soft, non-tender, with no palpable mass. An abdominal ultrasound is performed, the image of which is shown. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings depicted, what is the most appropriate definitive management strategy after initial fluid and electrolyte correction?

A. Trial of antiemetic medication
B. Laparoscopic pyloromyotomy
C. Barium meal study
D. Discharge home with feeding advice
E. Endoscopic balloon dilation
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Upright X-ray demonstrating small bowel obstruction
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male with a history of diverticulitis presents with severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and inability to pass flatus for 24 hours. An upright abdominal X-ray is performed. Based on the image, what is the MOST likely underlying cause?

A. Hernia
B. Volvulus
C. Intussusception
D. Adhesions
E. Neoplasm
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Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Image by Adityagupta95 CC0 1.0 · Source

A 4-week-old male presents with projectile vomiting after feeding. He is irritable and appears dehydrated. An upper GI series is performed, as shown. After addressing immediate concerns, what is the MOST appropriate next step?

A. Perform an upper endoscopy with biopsy
B. Administer intravenous antibiotics
C. Surgical pyloromyotomy
D. Start H2 receptor antagonist therapy
E. Initiate a trial of thickened feeds
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe right lower abdominal pain. She reports nausea and vomiting but denies fever or urinary symptoms. Her last menstrual period was two weeks ago, and she is sexually active. On examination, she has tenderness in the right lower quadrant with guarding. A pelvic ultrasound reveals a 5 cm right ovarian cyst with free fluid in the pelvis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Pelvic inflammatory disease
B. Ruptured ovarian cyst
C. Ovarian torsion
D. Ectopic pregnancy
E. Appendicitis
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An ultrasound showing target sign which is a characteristic finding for intussusception on ultrasound, this ultrasound is for a 3 year old boy with intestinal intussusception.
Image by Frank Gaillard CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 3-year-old boy presents with intermittent severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and lethargy. On examination, he is afebrile with a soft but slightly distended abdomen. An ultrasound is performed (image provided). Based on the clinical presentation and the image findings, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Pneumatic reduction under fluoroscopy
B. Admission for observation and IV fluids
C. Discharge home with pain relief
D. CT abdomen and pelvis
E. Urgent surgical exploration
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An ultrasound showing target sign which is a characteristic finding for intussusception on ultrasound, this ultrasound is for a 3 year old boy with intestinal intussusception.
Image by Frank Gaillard CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 3-year-old boy presents with sudden onset intermittent severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and lethargy. On examination, he is pale but haemodynamically stable. Abdominal examination reveals a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. An ultrasound is performed (image provided). What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Admission for observation and IV fluids
B. Air or hydrostatic enema reduction
C. Urgent surgical exploration
D. Abdominal CT scan with contrast
E. Intravenous antibiotics
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An ultrasound showing target sign which is a characteristic finding for intussusception on ultrasound, this ultrasound is for a 3 year old boy with intestinal intussusception.
Image by Frank Gaillard CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 3-year-old boy presents with sudden onset intermittent severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and lethargy. On examination, he is pale and has a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. An ultrasound is performed (image provided). Based on this finding, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Pneumatic or hydrostatic enema reduction
B. Immediate surgical exploration
C. Abdominal CT scan with contrast
D. Observation with IV fluids and analgesia
E. Barium swallow study
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Pyloric stenosis as seen on ultrasound in a 6 week old
Image by Dr Laughlin Dawes CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 6-week-old male presents with projectile vomiting after feeds. He is otherwise well-appearing, with normal vital signs. An abdominal ultrasound is performed (image attached). What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Initiate a proton pump inhibitor
B. Surgical consultation for pyloromyotomy
C. Reassurance and close follow-up
D. Upper endoscopy with biopsy
E. Trial of thickened feeds
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An ultrasound showing target sign which is a characteristic finding for intussusception on ultrasound, this ultrasound is for a 3 year old boy with intestinal intussusception.
Image by Frank Gaillard CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 3-year-old boy presents with intermittent abdominal pain, vomiting, and currant jelly stools. An ultrasound is performed, revealing the image shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Observation and supportive care
B. Surgical resection
C. IV antibiotics
D. Appendectomy
E. Air enema
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