middle-aged man

A 55-year-old male presents to his GP complaining of a swelling in his right groin that has been present for several months. He states it is more noticeable when he is standing or coughing and sometimes causes a dull ache, but it is easily pushed back in when he lies down. He denies any fever, nausea, or acute pain. His vital signs are stable. Physical examination reveals the finding shown in the image. Considering the patient's history and the physical examination finding depicted, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 55-year-old man presents with 2 days of left lower quadrant pain and mild constipation. He denies fever, nausea, or vomiting. On examination, he is afebrile, BP 120/70, HR 65, O2 sat 99% on air. There is mild LLQ tenderness without guarding or rebound. Bloods show WCC 11.5, CRP 30. A CT scan is performed. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the image, what is the most appropriate initial management plan?

A 58-year-old man presents to the emergency department with chest pain radiating to his left arm. His ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. What is the most appropriate immediate management?

A 48-year-old man presents to his GP reporting an intermittent swelling in his right groin over the past six months. He notes it is more prominent when he is upright or coughing and disappears when he lies down. He experiences occasional mild discomfort but denies any acute pain, nausea, or vomiting. His past medical history is unremarkable, and vital signs are stable. Physical examination reveals the finding shown in the image. Considering the patient's history and the physical examination finding depicted, what is the most appropriate recommendation regarding definitive management for this patient?

A 62-year-old male with a history of poorly controlled diabetes presents with fever, RUQ pain, and night sweats for 3 weeks. Initial blood cultures are negative. Imaging is performed, as shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 45-year-old man presents with chronic cough, weight loss, and night sweats. Chest X-ray shows apical infiltrates. Sputum smear for AFB is negative. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 62-year-old male with a history of chronic hepatitis C presents with right upper quadrant pain, weight loss, and jaundice. Vital signs are stable. Physical examination reveals hepatomegaly and mild ascites. Laboratory investigations include elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP). Imaging is performed as shown. Considering the clinical context and the findings demonstrated in the imaging, which of the following assessments is MOST crucial for determining the feasibility and type of definitive treatment for the identified lesion?

A 45-year-old male with a known history of Blue Rubber Bleb Naevus Syndrome, characterised by recurrent gastrointestinal bleeding and multiple cutaneous vascular lesions, presents to the emergency department with acute onset severe, colicky abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. On examination, his abdomen is distended and diffusely tender with reduced bowel sounds. Vital signs are within normal limits. An urgent abdominal CT scan is performed. Based on the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the image, what is the most appropriate immediate next step in management?

A 63-year-old man presents with dysphagia and early satiety. His BMI is 21. A CT scan is performed. Based on the image, and assuming conservative measures have failed, what surgical approach is MOST appropriate?

A 62-year-old male presents with left lower quadrant pain, fever, and leukocytosis. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed, the axial view is shown. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 48-year-old sheep farmer presents to his GP with a two-week history of persistent fever, severe retro-orbital headache, and profound fatigue. He denies cough, shortness of breath, or rash. On examination, his temperature is 38.5°C, pulse 85 bpm, BP 120/80 mmHg. The remainder of the examination, including chest auscultation, is unremarkable. He has not travelled outside the region recently.

A 55-year-old farmer presents with a week of fever, severe headache, and myalgia. He reports recent exposure to lambing ewes on his property. Physical examination is unremarkable except for mild hepatomegaly and normal vital signs. Considering the patient's occupation, exposure history, and clinical presentation, what is the most likely diagnosis?

A 38-year-old man presents with sudden onset severe left flank pain radiating to the groin, associated with nausea. He is afebrile, blood pressure 140/90 mmHg, heart rate 95 bpm. Urinalysis shows microscopic haematuria. Serum creatinine is 80 µmol/L. An ultrasound is performed. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the provided image, which of the following best explains the mechanism of the patient's pain?

A 35-year-old man presents with a painless lesion on his nose, present for 6 months. Examination reveals the image shown. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

A 55-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of left lower quadrant abdominal pain, associated with a low-grade fever (38.1°C) and mild nausea. He denies vomiting, diarrhoea, or rectal bleeding. On examination, he has localised tenderness in the left iliac fossa. His vital signs are stable: BP 130/80 mmHg, HR 78 bpm, RR 16/min, SpO2 98% on air. Blood tests show a white cell count of 12.5 x 10^9/L and CRP 45 mg/L. An abdominal CT scan is performed (image provided). Based on the clinical presentation and the provided image, what is the most appropriate setting for this patient's initial management?

A 62-year-old male presents to his general practitioner complaining of a dragging sensation in his right groin, particularly noticeable when standing for prolonged periods or straining during bowel movements. He denies any acute pain, nausea, vomiting, or changes in bowel habits. His past medical history is significant for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) managed with tamsulosin. On examination, the patient is afebrile with normal vital signs. Palpation of the abdomen is unremarkable. Examination of the groin reveals the finding shown in the image. The swelling increases with coughing. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 50-year-old Aboriginal man presents for a routine check-up. He has a strong family history of type 2 diabetes. What is the most appropriate initial screening test?

A 62-year-old male presents with LLQ pain and fever. The provided image was obtained. What is the most appropriate initial management?

A 55-year-old farmer presents with a week of severe retro-orbital headache, fever, and myalgia. He reports recent exposure to birthing sheep on his property. On examination, he is febrile (39.5°C) and mildly jaundiced. Liver enzymes are elevated (ALT 250 U/L). Chest X-ray is clear. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 40-year-old Aboriginal man presents for a health check. He has a strong family history of diabetes and cardiovascular disease. What is the most appropriate initial screening test to assess his risk?

A 32-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain that started suddenly 6 hours ago. The pain is located in the right lower quadrant and is associated with nausea and vomiting. On examination, he has rebound tenderness and guarding in the right lower quadrant. His temperature is 37.8°C, heart rate is 110 beats per minute, and blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg. A CT scan of the abdomen shows an inflamed appendix with surrounding fat stranding. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 59-year-old male presents with a painful right groin bulge that has progressively worsened over the past week. He denies fever, chills, nausea, or vomiting. Vitals are stable. The provided image was obtained. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A 58-year-old male with cirrhosis secondary to alcohol abuse presents for routine surveillance. His AFP is 25 ng/mL. A contrast-enhanced ultrasound is performed, as shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 58-year-old male presents with iron deficiency anemia and a change in bowel habits. A colonoscopy was performed, and the image is shown. Biopsies were taken. Assuming the biopsies confirm malignancy, what is the next step?

A 45-year-old man presents to his GP with a 3-month history of gradually enlarging, painless swelling in the left side of his neck. He denies fever, night sweats, or weight loss. He emigrated from a region with high tuberculosis prevalence five years ago and has no known history of TB exposure or prior testing. On examination, there are multiple firm, non-tender, discrete lymph nodes in the left posterior triangle of the neck, the largest measuring about 3 cm. There are no other palpable nodes or organomegaly. His chest X-ray is clear. What is the most appropriate next diagnostic step?

A 45-year-old male presents with intermittent abdominal pain and melena. The provided image was obtained. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 35-year-old man presents with 3 weeks of anal pain after defecation, blood on wiping, and constipation (firm stool every 2-3 days). What is the likely diagnosis?

A 62-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of right flank pain, fever, and nausea. He reports a history of recurrent urinary tract infections. On examination, he has right costovertebral angle tenderness. Urinalysis reveals pyuria and leukocyte esterase. Which of the following is the most likely underlying condition related to the organ primarily affected in the right lumbar region?

A 48-year-old man presents with a 2-year history of progressive, tender breast enlargement causing significant distress. Initial investigations including liver function tests, renal function tests, and basic hormonal assays (LH, FSH, testosterone, oestradiol) were largely within normal limits, except for a mildly elevated oestradiol. He takes no regular medications and denies recreational drug use. He is otherwise well and his physical examination is unremarkable apart from the findings shown in the image. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings, what is the most appropriate next step in his management?

A 45-year-old male presents with intermittent abdominal pain and melena. He has multiple cutaneous hemangiomas. The provided image was obtained. What is the MOST likely underlying cause of the patient's presentation?

A 55-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of left lower quadrant abdominal pain, associated with a low-grade fever (38.1°C) and mild nausea. He denies vomiting, diarrhoea, or rectal bleeding. On examination, he has localised tenderness in the left iliac fossa. His vital signs are stable: BP 130/80 mmHg, HR 78 bpm, RR 16/min, SpO2 98% on air. Blood tests show a white cell count of 12.5 x 10^9/L and CRP 45 mg/L. An abdominal CT scan is performed (image provided). Considering the clinical presentation and the findings on the provided image, which of the following investigations is most appropriate to recommend for this patient *after* resolution of the acute episode?

A 55-year-old man presents to his GP with a persistent lesion on his nose that has been present for several months and has not changed significantly in size or appearance. He reports it is occasionally itchy but otherwise asymptomatic. His medical history is unremarkable, and vital signs are within normal limits. On examination, you observe the lesion shown in the image. Considering the appearance of this lesion, what is the most appropriate initial step in the management of this patient?

A 45-year-old farmer presents with a 10-day history of fever, severe retro-orbital headache, and myalgia. He denies cough or dyspnoea. Physical examination is unremarkable. What is the most appropriate initial investigation?

A 45-year-old man with a history of hypertension presents to the emergency department with palpitations and lightheadedness. His ECG shows a regular narrow-complex tachycardia at a rate of 180 bpm. There are no visible P waves, and the QRS duration is 0.08 seconds. He is hemodynamically stable. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?

A 58-year-old man presents with concerns about breast enlargement over the past year. He denies pain or nipple discharge. He takes medication for hypertension. Examination reveals the findings in the image. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial investigation?

A 60-year-old man presents with a reducible right groin bulge, as seen in the image. He reports mild discomfort. What is the most appropriate initial management?

A 62-year-old male presents with left lower quadrant pain, fever, and leukocytosis. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed (image attached). Assuming the diagnosis, which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial management?

A 32-year-old male with Crohn's disease presents with worsening abdominal pain and diarrhea despite being on maintenance infliximab. He denies fever or blood in his stool. An abdominal CT and MRI are performed. Based on the imaging, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 50-year-old man presents with a slowly growing, asymptomatic nasal lesion. He reports no trauma or fever. Examination reveals the image shown. What is the MOST likely long-term outcome if left untreated?

A 45-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 3-month history of persistent cough, night sweats, and weight loss. He has a history of smoking and works as a miner. On examination, he has decreased breath sounds and dullness to percussion over the right upper lobe. A chest X-ray shows a cavitary lesion in the right upper lobe. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 40-year-old patient with schizophrenia is started on risperidone. His GP recommends regular monitoring. What parameters should be monitored?

A 62-year-old male presents with jaundice and RUQ pain. An ERCP is performed, and the image is obtained. Following successful stone extraction, what is the MOST appropriate next step in managing this patient?

A 58-year-old male presents to your GP clinic complaining of a dragging sensation in his groin, noticeable especially when standing for long periods. On examination, you observe the finding in the image. He denies any pain. What is the MOST appropriate initial management?

A 58-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe epigastric pain radiating to the back, which started suddenly 6 hours ago. He has a history of alcohol use disorder and has been consuming large amounts of alcohol daily for the past 10 years. On examination, he is diaphoretic and in distress, with a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg, heart rate of 120 bpm, and respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute. Abdominal examination reveals tenderness in the epigastric region with guarding. Laboratory tests show elevated serum amylase and lipase levels. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management step?

A 55-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents for a routine follow-up. His HbA1c is 9.0% despite being on metformin 1000 mg twice daily. He has a BMI of 32 kg/m² and no history of cardiovascular disease. What is the most appropriate next step in his management?

A 62-year-old male presents with bilateral breast enlargement for 6 months. He denies pain, discharge, or skin changes. He reports taking saw palmetto for BPH. Examination reveals the findings in the image. What is the MOST likely cause?

A 58-year-old farmer presents with a 10-day history of fever, severe retro-orbital headache, myalgia, and profound fatigue. He denies cough or sore throat. Examination reveals mild scleral icterus. Liver function tests show elevated transaminases. He works closely with sheep and cattle. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 55-year-old male presents to his GP with bilateral breast tenderness and swelling over six months. He denies nipple discharge or other systemic symptoms. Past medical history is unremarkable, and he takes no regular medications. Physical examination reveals the findings shown in the image. Vital signs are normal. Initial investigations including liver function tests, renal function tests, thyroid function tests, LH, FSH, prolactin, and testosterone are all within normal limits. Considering the clinical presentation, image findings, and normal initial investigations, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the evaluation of this patient?

A 58-year-old male, on chronic immunosuppressants, presents with vague abdominal pain. The images are shown. What is the MOST likely causative organism?

A 50-year-old man with multiple cutaneous lesions presents with recurrent episodes of abdominal pain and iron deficiency anemia. The provided image was obtained. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?