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shortness of breath

Practice targeted AMC-style multiple-choice questions on shortness of breath.

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A 48-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 3-month history of increasing fatigue, exertional dyspnoea, and a persistent cough productive of small amounts of mucus. She mentions a history of recurrent 'sinus infections' over the past year, often treated with antibiotics. She has recently felt lightheaded on standing. On examination, her blood pressure is 95/60 mmHg, pulse 88 bpm, respiratory rate 20 breaths/min, and oxygen saturation 96% on room air. Chest auscultation reveals diffuse expiratory wheezes. Blood tests performed last week show haemoglobin 85 g/L (reference range 120-150), MCV 72 fL (reference range 80-100), and normal white cell count and platelet count. Spirometry performed concurrently shows an FEV1/FVC ratio of 0.65 (predicted >0.70) with partial reversibility after bronchodilator. Considering the clinical presentation and investigations, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Order ANCA testing.
B. Initiate iron supplementation and investigate for gastrointestinal blood loss.
C. Arrange a high-resolution CT scan of the chest and sinuses.
D. Refer for urgent bronchoscopy.
E. Prescribe a course of oral corticosteroids and review in one week.
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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of sudden onset shortness of breath and right-sided chest pain. He reports that the pain started acutely this morning and has been gradually worsening. He has a history of atrial fibrillation and has been taking warfarin for the past 5 years. He denies any recent trauma or injury. On examination, his vital signs are: heart rate 110 bpm, blood pressure 100/60 mmHg, respiratory rate 28 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation 88% on room air. Auscultation reveals decreased breath sounds on the right side. The patient is pale and diaphoretic. A chest X-ray was initially performed, followed by the image shown. Given the clinical presentation and the findings on the image, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Administer protamine sulfate
B. Perform a thoracentesis
C. Administer intravenous antibiotics
D. Order a ventilation/perfusion scan
E. Insert a chest tube
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A 7-year-old boy with a history of asthma presents to the clinic with increased wheezing and shortness of breath over the past week. He has been using his salbutamol inhaler more frequently, but his symptoms persist. His mother reports that he has been waking up at night due to coughing. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this child's asthma?

A. Prescribe an oral corticosteroid
B. Add a long-acting beta-agonist
C. Start an inhaled corticosteroid
D. Refer to a pulmonologist
E. Increase the dose of salbutamol
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A 70-year-old man with severe COPD (FEV1 30% predicted), on triple inhaled therapy and supplemental oxygen, presents with a 3-day history of increased dyspnoea, productive cough with purulent sputum, and reduced exercise tolerance. He denies fever or chest pain. On examination, he is tachypnoeic (RR 24), saturating 88% on 2 L/min oxygen, with diffuse wheeze and prolonged expiration. His chest X-ray shows hyperinflation but no new infiltrates. His arterial blood gas on 2 L/min oxygen shows pH 7.32, pCO2 68 mmHg, pO2 55 mmHg, bicarbonate 35 mmol/L. Given this presentation, what is the most appropriate immediate management step?

A. Initiate non-invasive ventilation
B. Prescribe oral antibiotics
C. Administer intravenous corticosteroids
D. Increase supplemental oxygen flow rate
E. Perform a bronchoscopy
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A 7-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents due to sudden onset wheezing and difficulty breathing. He has a history of asthma, for which he uses a salbutamol inhaler as needed. His parents report that he had a cold over the past few days, and today he started wheezing and became short of breath. On examination, he is in moderate respiratory distress, with a respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation of 92% on room air, and widespread wheezing on auscultation. What is the most appropriate initial management step for this child?

A. Administer nebulized salbutamol
B. Provide supplemental oxygen
C. Initiate inhaled corticosteroids
D. Start oral corticosteroids
E. Administer intravenous magnesium sulfate
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A 45-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of progressive shortness of breath, dry cough, and fatigue. She has a history of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and is currently on hydroxychloroquine and low-dose prednisone. She denies fever, chest pain, or recent travel. On examination, her temperature is 37.2°C, blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, heart rate is 95 bpm, respiratory rate is 22 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation is 89% on room air. Lung auscultation reveals bilateral basal crackles. Laboratory tests show a hemoglobin level of 10.5 g/dL, white blood cell count of 4,000/mm³, and platelets of 150,000/mm³. Arterial blood gas analysis reveals a pH of 7.45, PaCO2 of 35 mmHg, and PaO2 of 55 mmHg. A chest X-ray shows bilateral interstitial infiltrates. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Initiation of non-invasive ventilation
B. High-dose intravenous methylprednisolone
C. Intravenous cyclophosphamide
D. Empirical broad-spectrum antibiotics
E. Bronchoscopy with bronchoalveolar lavage
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A 57-year-old lady with a chronic cough, a 35 pack-year smoking history, and breathlessness with daily tasks has had spirometry done. What is the likely interpretation of the spirometry results?

A. Normal spirometry
B. Mod OAD, no reversibility.
C. Severe obstructive airway disease, with reversibility.
D. Restrictive pattern
E. Mild OAD, no reversibility.
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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 78-year-old male on warfarin presents with dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain after a fall. INR is 7.0. A chest CT is performed (image attached). After initial resuscitation, what is the MOST appropriate next step?

A. Observe and repeat CT chest in 6 hours
B. Administer intravenous vitamin K and prothrombin complex concentrate
C. Perform bronchoscopy with bronchoalveolar lavage
D. Administer intravenous protamine sulfate
E. Insert an intercostal chest drain
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A 72-year-old man with fatigue and a past myocardial infarction at 55 is breathless on stairs, has a 3 kg weight gain, and ankle marks. What is his likely NYHA functional class for chronic heart failure?

A. NYHA Class 3
B. NYHA Class 2
C. NYHA Class 4
D. NYHA Class 1
E. Not enough information to classify.
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A 68-year-old man presents to the emergency department with fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath on exertion. His blood tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 7.5 g/dL, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 72 fL, and low serum ferritin. He has a history of osteoarthritis and takes ibuprofen regularly. What is the most likely cause of his anemia?

A. Thalassemia minor
B. Vitamin B12 deficiency
C. Chronic blood loss due to gastrointestinal bleeding
D. Anemia of chronic disease
E. Hemolytic anemia
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Giant hiatal hernia, CT image. 63 year old man.
Image by Jmarchn CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 63-year-old man presents with increasing shortness of breath and epigastric discomfort, particularly after meals. He has a history of GERD. Physical examination reveals decreased breath sounds at the left lung base. An axial CT image is shown. Considering the clinical presentation and imaging findings, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Arrange urgent upper gastrointestinal endoscopy
B. Request a barium swallow study
C. Referral for surgical repair
D. Discharge with advice on lifestyle modification and follow-up
E. Initiate high-dose proton pump inhibitor therapy
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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 78-year-old male on warfarin presents to the ED after a fall. He complains of dyspnea and right-sided chest pain. His INR is 5.0. Vitals: HR 110, BP 100/60, RR 28, SpO2 90% on room air. The provided image was obtained. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A. Administer IV protamine sulfate
B. Tube thoracostomy
C. Administer IV vitamin K
D. Administer IV tranexamic acid
E. Observation with serial chest X-rays
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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

An 82-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with increasing shortness of breath and intermittent chest discomfort over the past week. She reports some difficulty swallowing larger food boluses recently but denies significant heartburn. Her past medical history includes hypertension and osteoarthritis. On examination, her vital signs are stable: BP 135/85 mmHg, HR 78 bpm, RR 18/min, SpO2 94% on room air, Temp 36.8°C. Auscultation of the chest reveals decreased breath sounds at the left base. A central venous catheter is noted in the right subclavian vein. Initial blood tests show a mild normocytic anaemia (Hb 105 g/L) and normal inflammatory markers. An urgent imaging study is performed. Considering the clinical presentation and the provided imaging study, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Administer intravenous diuretics for suspected acute decompensated heart failure.
B. Prepare for immediate surgical reduction and repair.
C. Initiate broad-spectrum antibiotics for suspected community-acquired pneumonia.
D. Arrange a contrast swallow study or CT scan of the chest and abdomen.
E. Prescribe a high-dose proton pump inhibitor and review in outpatient clinic.
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A 62-year-old man with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and type 2 diabetes presents to the emergency department with increasing shortness of breath over the past two days. He reports a productive cough with greenish sputum and denies chest pain. On examination, he is using accessory muscles to breathe, has a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation of 88% on room air. His blood pressure is 130/85 mmHg, and his heart rate is 105 bpm. Auscultation of the chest reveals diffuse wheezing and decreased breath sounds bilaterally. An arterial blood gas analysis shows pH 7.32, PaCO2 55 mmHg, and PaO2 60 mmHg. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Initiate non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIPPV)
B. Provide supplemental oxygen via nasal cannula
C. Administer intravenous corticosteroids
D. Administer a bronchodilator nebulizer treatment
E. Start broad-spectrum antibiotics
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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 68-year-old male on warfarin presents with pleuritic chest pain and mild dyspnea. INR is 4.5. The image was obtained. What is the MOST appropriate initial intervention?

A. Observation and serial chest X-rays
B. Urgent bronchoscopy
C. Vitamin K administration
D. Chest tube insertion
E. IV protamine sulfate
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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 78-year-old male on warfarin for atrial fibrillation presents with acute severe dyspnoea and right-sided pleuritic chest pain. Vitals: T 36.8°C, HR 95, BP 110/70, RR 24, SpO2 92% RA. Exam: decreased breath sounds, dullness right hemithorax. A CT scan of the chest is performed. Considering the patient's presentation, history, and the imaging findings, which is the most appropriate immediate management?

A. Arrange for urgent bronchoscopy to rule out airway obstruction
B. Observe the patient closely in the intensive care unit without specific intervention
C. Increase the dose of warfarin and monitor INR
D. Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics and arrange for thoracentesis
E. Administer Vitamin K and Prothrombinex (PCC) and arrange for chest tube insertion
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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male presents to the ED with sudden onset shortness of breath and right-sided chest pain. He reports a recent fall but denies any significant trauma. He has a history of atrial fibrillation and is currently taking warfarin. His INR is 6.5. A CT scan of the chest is performed (image attached). What is the MOST appropriate immediate next step in management?

A. Observe and repeat INR in 6 hours
B. Administer intravenous vitamin K and prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC)
C. Perform a needle thoracostomy
D. Administer intravenous protamine sulfate
E. Administer intravenous heparin
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An 80-year-old man with known severe COPD and stable ischaemic heart disease presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of worsening shortness of breath, increased cough productive of yellow sputum, and ankle swelling. He is usually independent but now struggles to walk across a room. On examination: Alert but distressed. BP 130/85 mmHg, HR 110 bpm, RR 28 breaths/min, Temp 37.8°C, SpO2 88% on room air. Chest examination reveals diffuse wheezes and crackles bilaterally, reduced air entry at the bases. JVP is elevated to 5 cm above the sternal angle. Mild pitting edema to the knees. ECG shows sinus tachycardia, no acute ischaemic changes. Chest X-ray shows hyperinflation, flattened diaphragms, increased bronchial markings, and mild interstitial prominence. Given this presentation, what is the most appropriate initial management step?

A. Administer controlled oxygen therapy aiming for SpO2 88-92% and nebulised bronchodilators.
B. Administer intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics.
C. Perform urgent echocardiogram.
D. Administer intravenous furosemide.
E. Administer high-flow oxygen via non-rebreather mask.
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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male presents to the ED with increasing shortness of breath and epigastric pain, especially when lying down. He has a history of GORD, hypertension and COPD. His vitals are stable. An X-ray is performed. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Administer intravenous antibiotics for possible aspiration pneumonia
B. Prescribe a short course of oral corticosteroids for COPD exacerbation
C. Order a barium swallow study to assess esophageal motility
D. Initiate a proton pump inhibitor and schedule an upper endoscopy
E. Perform a diagnostic thoracentesis to rule out pleural effusion
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A 55-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 3-month history of fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath on exertion. She has a history of menorrhagia. On examination, she appears pale and has conjunctival pallor. Blood tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 70 fL, and low serum ferritin. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Arrange for a blood transfusion
B. Refer for a colonoscopy
C. Prescribe erythropoietin
D. Start oral iron supplementation
E. Order a bone marrow biopsy
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A 65-year-old man with a history of hypertension and ischemic heart disease presents to the emergency department with worsening shortness of breath, orthopnea, and peripheral edema. On examination, he has elevated jugular venous pressure, bilateral basal crackles, and pitting edema in the lower limbs. An echocardiogram shows an ejection fraction of 35%. What is the most appropriate initial management step for this patient?

A. Initiate digoxin therapy
B. Perform coronary angiography
C. Start oral beta-blockers
D. Administer intravenous furosemide
E. Prescribe oral ACE inhibitors
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A 65-year-old man with a history of COPD presents with fever, productive cough, and shortness of breath for 3 days. On examination, he has crackles in the right lower lung field. A chest X-ray shows a right lower lobe consolidation. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Tuberculosis
B. Lung cancer
C. Heart failure
D. Pulmonary embolism
E. Community-acquired pneumonia
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A 10-year-old boy with a history of asthma presents to the emergency department with wheezing and shortness of breath. His mother reports that he has been using his salbutamol inhaler more frequently over the past two days. On examination, he has a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute, and his oxygen saturation is 92% on room air. What is the most appropriate initial management step?

A. Administer nebulized salbutamol
B. Administer intravenous magnesium sulfate
C. Provide supplemental oxygen
D. Increase the dose of inhaled corticosteroids
E. Start oral corticosteroids
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A 65-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension presents with exertional dyspnea and fatigue. His physical examination reveals a blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg, a heart rate of 88 bpm, and a soft S4 gallop. There is no peripheral edema. An electrocardiogram shows left ventricular hypertrophy with repolarization abnormalities. Which of the following diagnostic tests would be most appropriate to evaluate for underlying coronary artery disease in this patient?

A. Coronary angiography
B. Cardiac MRI
C. 24-hour Holter monitoring
D. Transthoracic echocardiography without stress
E. Exercise stress echocardiography
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Giant hiatal hernia, CT image. 63 year old man.
Image by Jmarchn CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 63-year-old man presents to the ED with increasing shortness of breath and epigastric discomfort, particularly after meals. He has a history of well-controlled hypertension and takes no regular medications. Physical examination reveals decreased breath sounds at the left lung base. An abdominal CT scan is performed, the axial view is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Discharge with reassurance and follow-up with a gastroenterologist in 6 months
B. Barium swallow study to further evaluate the anatomy
C. Surgical consultation for elective repair
D. Initiate a trial of proton pump inhibitors and lifestyle modifications
E. Esophageal manometry to assess esophageal motility
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A 60-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 2-month history of progressive shortness of breath and a dry cough. She has a history of rheumatoid arthritis and is currently on methotrexate and low-dose prednisone. On examination, she has fine inspiratory crackles at the lung bases. A high-resolution CT scan of the chest shows reticular opacities and honeycombing predominantly in the lower lobes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
B. Congestive heart failure
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Interstitial lung disease secondary to rheumatoid arthritis
E. Pneumonia
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A 68-year-old man with a history of hypertension and coronary artery disease presents to the emergency department with worsening shortness of breath and fatigue over the past week. On examination, he has elevated jugular venous pressure, bilateral lung crackles, and peripheral edema. An echocardiogram reveals reduced ejection fraction and dilated ventricles. Which of the following best explains the pathophysiological mechanism leading to his symptoms?

A. Increased peripheral resistance leading to left ventricular hypertrophy
B. Decreased venous return causing systemic hypotension
C. Enhanced myocardial contractility resulting in fluid retention
D. Decreased cardiac output leading to activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
E. Increased cardiac output causing pulmonary congestion
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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

An 82-year-old patient presents with a 6-month history of chronic cough, intermittent dyspnea, and occasional regurgitation, particularly when lying flat. They deny significant chest pain or weight loss. Past medical history includes well-controlled hypertension and mild asthma managed with salbutamol PRN. On examination, vital signs are stable, and lung sounds are clear with no wheeze. An outpatient chest X-ray was performed as part of the workup for the cough and dyspnea. Considering the radiographic findings in conjunction with the clinical history, which of the following investigations is most appropriate at this stage?

A. High-resolution CT chest
B. Oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy (OGD)
C. Pulmonary function tests
D. 24-hour oesophageal pH monitoring
E. Cardiac stress test
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A 72-year-old man with a history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation presents to the emergency department with worsening shortness of breath and fatigue over the past two weeks. He reports occasional palpitations but denies chest pain or syncope. On examination, his blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, heart rate is 130 bpm (irregularly irregular), respiratory rate is 22 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation is 94% on room air. Jugular venous pressure is elevated, and there are bilateral lung crackles. An ECG shows atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular response. An echocardiogram reveals moderate mitral regurgitation and left atrial enlargement. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management step?

A. Initiation of antiarrhythmic therapy with amiodarone
B. Rate control with intravenous diltiazem
C. Immediate electrical cardioversion
D. Initiation of oral anticoagulation
E. Referral for mitral valve surgery
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A 34-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with acute-onset shortness of breath. A CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) is ordered, shown in the photograph, confirming a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment option for this patient?

A. Thrombolytic therapy.
B. Caval filter.
C. Unfractionated heparin or low-molecular weight heparin (LMWH).
D. Dabigatran.
E. Warfarin.
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Giant hiatal hernia, CT image. 63 year old man.
Image by Jmarchn CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 63-year-old man presents to the ED with increasing shortness of breath and epigastric discomfort, particularly after meals. He has a history of GERD managed with occasional antacids. Physical examination reveals decreased breath sounds at the left lung base. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed, the axial view is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Surgical consultation for consideration of hiatal hernia repair
B. Initiate a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) and reassess in 4 weeks
C. Perform a diagnostic thoracentesis to rule out pleural effusion
D. Prescribe prokinetic agents to improve gastric emptying
E. Order an upper endoscopy to evaluate for esophagitis
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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male presents to the ED with increasing shortness of breath and epigastric pain, especially when lying down. He has a history of GORD, hypertension and COPD. His vitals are stable. An X-ray is performed. What is the MOST likely underlying cause of his presentation?

A. Gastric malignancy
B. Esophageal dysmotility
C. Reduced lower esophageal sphincter tone
D. Aortic aneurysm
E. Pneumonia
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A 72-year-old woman presents with sudden onset shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. She had knee surgery 10 days ago. She has a history of hypertension. On examination, she is anxious, respiratory rate is 24, heart rate 105, BP 130/80, SpO2 92% on room air. Lungs are clear. ECG shows sinus tachycardia. There is mild swelling in the operated leg. Considering the likely diagnosis, which initial investigation is most appropriate?

A. D-dimer
B. Chest X-ray
C. CT pulmonary angiography
D. Ventilation-perfusion scan
E. Lower limb ultrasound
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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 78-year-old male on warfarin for atrial fibrillation presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe dyspnoea and right-sided pleuritic chest pain. He denies trauma. On examination, he is tachypnoeic, oxygen saturation is 92% on room air. Blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, heart rate 95 bpm. Chest examination reveals decreased breath sounds on the right. A CT scan of the chest is performed. Considering the patient's clinical presentation, medical history, and the findings demonstrated in the provided image, which of the following interventions is most critical to initiate *before* considering invasive drainage?

A. Insertion of a large-bore chest tube
B. Urgent surgical exploration of the chest
C. Administration of prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC) or Factor IX complex
D. Initiation of therapeutic heparin infusion
E. Intravenous administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics
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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male on warfarin presents with sudden onset shortness of breath and right-sided chest pain after a fall. His INR is 4.5. The provided image was obtained. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Administration of intravenous vitamin K
B. Bronchoscopy to rule out airway obstruction
C. Observation with serial chest X-rays
D. Administration of prothrombin complex concentrate
E. Insertion of an intercostal chest drain
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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 78-year-old male on warfarin for atrial fibrillation presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe dyspnoea and right-sided pleuritic chest pain. He denies trauma. On examination, he is tachypnoeic, oxygen saturation is 92% on room air. Blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, heart rate 95 bpm. Chest examination reveals decreased breath sounds on the right. A CT scan of the chest is performed. Considering the patient's clinical presentation, medical history, and the findings demonstrated in the provided image, which of the following represents the most appropriate immediate management strategy?

A. Arrange for urgent bronchoscopy to investigate airway obstruction.
B. Increase warfarin dose and monitor INR.
C. Observe closely in the emergency department with serial chest X-rays.
D. Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics and arrange for thoracentesis.
E. Administer Vitamin K and Prothrombinex (PCC) and arrange for chest tube insertion.
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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 72-year-old patient presents with intermittent chest discomfort and increasing shortness of breath, particularly after meals. Vitals are stable. Physical examination is unremarkable. A chest X-ray is performed. Considering the radiographic findings in the context of the patient's symptoms, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Trial of high-dose proton pump inhibitors
B. High-resolution CT chest
C. Barium swallow study
D. Referral for surgical assessment and repair
E. Urgent cardiac catheterisation
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A 45-year-old male presents to the emergency department with severe chest pain radiating to his left arm, shortness of breath, and diaphoresis. He has a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia. On examination, he is diaphoretic, and his blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. An ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

A. Administer intravenous fluids to address hypotension
B. Administer beta-blockers to reduce myocardial oxygen demand
C. Administer morphine for pain management
D. Administer aspirin and initiate reperfusion therapy
E. Administer nitroglycerin for chest pain relief
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A 65-year-old patient with a history of DVT presents with sudden onset dyspnoea and pleuritic chest pain. Examination is unremarkable except for mild tachypnoea. Wells score is 4. Which initial investigation is most appropriate in the diagnostic pathway?

A. D-dimer
B. Lower limb ultrasound
C. V/Q scan
D. CT Pulmonary Angiogram (CTPA)
E. Chest X-ray
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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male presents with increasing shortness of breath and epigastric discomfort, particularly after meals. He has a history of well-controlled hypertension and takes aspirin daily. An X-ray is performed. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Prescribe a H2 receptor antagonist
B. Order a barium swallow study
C. Initiate a proton pump inhibitor and lifestyle modifications
D. Perform an upper endoscopy
E. Refer for surgical consultation for fundoplication
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A 68-year-old man with moderate COPD (FEV1 55%) on a LAMA reports persistent breathlessness (mMRC 2) and one moderate exacerbation requiring oral steroids last year. What is the most appropriate next step in maintenance therapy?

A. Add an inhaled corticosteroid (ICS).
B. Increase the dose of the current LAMA.
C. Switch LAMA to a long-acting beta-agonist (LABA).
D. Add a short-acting beta-agonist (SABA) as regular therapy.
E. Add a long-acting beta-agonist (LABA).
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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 68-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of acute onset shortness of breath and right-sided chest pain. He reports that the pain started suddenly this morning and has been gradually worsening. He has a history of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation, for which he takes warfarin. He denies any recent trauma or injury. On examination, his vital signs are: heart rate 115 bpm, blood pressure 95/60 mmHg, respiratory rate 30 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation 87% on room air. Auscultation reveals decreased breath sounds on the right side. The patient appears pale and is diaphoretic. His INR is 6.5. A CT scan of the chest is performed, and the relevant image is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Perform needle thoracostomy followed by insertion of an underwater seal drain
B. Administer intravenous protamine sulfate and monitor for improvement in respiratory status
C. Administer intravenous furosemide and monitor urine output
D. Insert a chest tube and administer intravenous vitamin K and prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC)
E. Administer intravenous antibiotics and schedule a repeat CT scan in 24 hours
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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male presents to the ED with sudden onset shortness of breath and right-sided chest pain. He has a history of atrial fibrillation and has been taking warfarin for the past 5 years. His INR is currently 6.5. A CT scan of the chest is performed (image attached). What is the MOST appropriate immediate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Insert an intercostal chest drain
B. Administer intravenous vitamin K and prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC)
C. Perform a diagnostic thoracentesis
D. Observe and repeat INR in 6 hours
E. Administer intravenous protamine sulfate
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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 75-year-old male is brought to the emergency department by ambulance with sudden onset severe shortness of breath and left-sided pleuritic chest pain that began approximately 4 hours ago. He reports feeling lightheaded and generally unwell. His past medical history includes chronic atrial fibrillation, hypertension, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. He is currently prescribed warfarin 5mg daily, metoprolol 50mg twice daily, perindopril 4mg daily, and metformin 1000mg twice daily. He denies any recent falls, trauma, or invasive procedures. On examination, he is visibly distressed and tachypnoeic. His vital signs are: temperature 36.8°C, heart rate 125 bpm (irregularly irregular), blood pressure 88/55 mmHg, respiratory rate 32 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation 85% on room air. Jugular venous pressure is not elevated. Cardiac auscultation reveals a rapid, irregular rhythm with no murmurs. Pulmonary auscultation reveals significantly diminished breath sounds over the entire left hemithorax, with dullness to percussion. The right lung field is clear. Abdominal examination is unremarkable. Peripheral pulses are weak but present. His capillary refill time is prolonged at 4 seconds. Initial laboratory results show haemoglobin 135 g/L (baseline 140 g/L three months ago), white cell count 9.2 x 10^9/L, platelets 250 x 10^9/L, creatinine 110 µmol/L, electrolytes within normal limits. His INR is 7.8. An urgent CT scan of the chest is performed, and a representative axial image is shown. Based on the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the image, what is the single MOST appropriate immediate management step?

A. Arrange for urgent echocardiography to assess for cardiac tamponade and pulmonary embolism.
B. Initiate high-flow oxygen via non-rebreather mask and administer intravenous furosemide.
C. Administer intravenous tranexamic acid and observe the patient closely in the intensive care unit.
D. Administer intravenous Prothrombinex-VF and insert a large-bore intercostal catheter into the left pleural space.
E. Administer intravenous Vitamin K and arrange for urgent surgical consultation for thoracotomy.
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Giant hiatal hernia, CT image. 63 year old man.
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A 63-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of increasing shortness of breath and epigastric discomfort over the past several months. He reports feeling full quickly after eating only small amounts. He denies any chest pain, fever, or recent weight loss. His past medical history includes hypertension and well-controlled type 2 diabetes. He takes lisinopril and metformin daily. On examination, his vital signs are stable: blood pressure 130/80 mmHg, heart rate 82 bpm, respiratory rate 18 breaths/min, and oxygen saturation 96% on room air. Auscultation of the chest reveals decreased breath sounds at the left base. Abdominal examination reveals mild epigastric tenderness to palpation, but no rebound tenderness or guarding. The provided image was obtained. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Initiate a proton pump inhibitor and monitor symptoms
B. Esophageal manometry
C. Endoscopic surveillance every 3 years
D. Surgical repair
E. Barium swallow study
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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 75-year-old male on warfarin for atrial fibrillation presents with acute dyspnoea and pleuritic chest pain. He is hypotensive with a BP of 90/60 mmHg and tachycardic at 110 bpm. His INR is 7.2. A chest CT is performed (image attached). Considering the clinical context and imaging findings, what is the MOST appropriate immediate management step?

A. Administer intravenous Vitamin K and Prothrombinex-VF
B. Initiate high-flow nasal cannula oxygen
C. Arrange for urgent surgical consultation for thoracotomy
D. Perform urgent tube thoracostomy
E. Administer intravenous furosemide
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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 78-year-old male on warfarin presents with acute shortness of breath. INR is 5.0. The provided image was obtained. What is the MOST likely underlying cause?

A. Pneumonia
B. Anticoagulation-related bleeding
C. Heart failure exacerbation
D. Pulmonary embolism
E. Spontaneous pneumothorax
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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male on warfarin presents with sudden onset dyspnea. His INR is 6.0. The provided image was obtained. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A. Administer IV vitamin K and prothrombin complex concentrate
B. Observe and repeat imaging in 24 hours
C. Perform needle thoracostomy
D. Administer IV protamine sulfate
E. Administer IV furosemide
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A 62-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with acute onset of chest pain and shortness of breath. She describes the pain as sharp and worse with inspiration. She has a history of deep vein thrombosis and is currently on warfarin. On examination, her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, heart rate is 110 bpm, respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation is 88% on room air. Her jugular venous pressure is elevated, and she has clear lung fields on auscultation. An ECG shows sinus tachycardia with right axis deviation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Acute myocardial infarction
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Pericarditis
D. Pneumothorax
E. Aortic dissection
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A 62-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset chest pain and shortness of breath that started 2 hours ago while he was gardening. He describes the pain as a tightness across his chest, radiating to his left arm. He has a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia, and he is a current smoker. On examination, his blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, heart rate is 110 bpm, respiratory rate is 22 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation is 94% on room air. He appears anxious and diaphoretic. An ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate management step?

A. Administer intravenous morphine for pain relief
B. Administer beta-blockers to control heart rate
C. Administer oxygen to maintain saturation above 95%
D. Administer aspirin and initiate primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)
E. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin and observe for response
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