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shortness of breath

Practice targeted AMC-style multiple-choice questions on shortness of breath.

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A 48-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 3-month history of increasing fatigue, exertional dyspnoea, and a persistent cough productive of small amounts of mucus. She mentions a history of recurrent 'sinus infections' over the past year, often treated with antibiotics. She has recently felt lightheaded on standing. On examination, her blood pressure is 95/60 mmHg, pulse 88 bpm, respiratory rate 20 breaths/min, and oxygen saturation 96% on room air. Chest auscultation reveals diffuse expiratory wheezes. Blood tests performed last week show haemoglobin 85 g/L (reference range 120-150), MCV 72 fL (reference range 80-100), and normal white cell count and platelet count. Spirometry performed concurrently shows an FEV1/FVC ratio of 0.65 (predicted >0.70) with partial reversibility after bronchodilator. Considering the clinical presentation and investigations, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Order ANCA testing.
B. Initiate iron supplementation and investigate for gastrointestinal blood loss.
C. Arrange a high-resolution CT scan of the chest and sinuses.
D. Refer for urgent bronchoscopy.
E. Prescribe a course of oral corticosteroids and review in one week.
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A 7-year-old boy with a history of asthma presents to the clinic with increased wheezing and shortness of breath over the past week. He has been using his salbutamol inhaler more frequently, but his symptoms persist. His mother reports that he has been waking up at night due to coughing. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this child's asthma?

A. Prescribe an oral corticosteroid
B. Add a long-acting beta-agonist
C. Start an inhaled corticosteroid
D. Refer to a pulmonologist
E. Increase the dose of salbutamol
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A 70-year-old man with severe COPD (FEV1 30% predicted), on triple inhaled therapy and supplemental oxygen, presents with a 3-day history of increased dyspnoea, productive cough with purulent sputum, and reduced exercise tolerance. He denies fever or chest pain. On examination, he is tachypnoeic (RR 24), saturating 88% on 2 L/min oxygen, with diffuse wheeze and prolonged expiration. His chest X-ray shows hyperinflation but no new infiltrates. His arterial blood gas on 2 L/min oxygen shows pH 7.32, pCO2 68 mmHg, pO2 55 mmHg, bicarbonate 35 mmol/L. Given this presentation, what is the most appropriate immediate management step?

A. Initiate non-invasive ventilation
B. Prescribe oral antibiotics
C. Administer intravenous corticosteroids
D. Increase supplemental oxygen flow rate
E. Perform a bronchoscopy
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A 7-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents due to sudden onset wheezing and difficulty breathing. He has a history of asthma, for which he uses a salbutamol inhaler as needed. His parents report that he had a cold over the past few days, and today he started wheezing and became short of breath. On examination, he is in moderate respiratory distress, with a respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation of 92% on room air, and widespread wheezing on auscultation. What is the most appropriate initial management step for this child?

A. Administer nebulized salbutamol
B. Provide supplemental oxygen
C. Initiate inhaled corticosteroids
D. Start oral corticosteroids
E. Administer intravenous magnesium sulfate
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A 57-year-old lady with a chronic cough, a 35 pack-year smoking history, and breathlessness with daily tasks has had spirometry done. What is the likely interpretation of the spirometry results?

A. Normal spirometry
B. Mod OAD, no reversibility.
C. Severe obstructive airway disease, with reversibility.
D. Restrictive pattern
E. Mild OAD, no reversibility.
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A 72-year-old man presents to the clinic with progressive shortness of breath and a chronic cough producing white sputum. He has a 40-pack-year smoking history and worked in construction for most of his life. On examination, he has clubbing of the fingers and crackles at the lung bases. A chest X-ray shows diffuse reticular opacities, particularly at the lung bases. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
B. Lung cancer
C. Asbestosis
D. Congestive heart failure
E. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 75-year-old male with a history of atrial fibrillation on warfarin presents to the emergency department with acute onset shortness of breath and right-sided chest pain. His vital signs are stable. His INR is found to be 7.2. A chest CT is performed (image attached). Based on the clinical presentation and imaging findings, what is the MOST appropriate immediate management step?

A. Administer Vitamin K and Prothrombinex (PCC) and prepare for chest tube insertion.
B. Administer Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP) and arrange for surgical consultation.
C. Prescribe analgesia and observe the patient for clinical improvement.
D. Proceed directly to chest tube insertion without reversing anticoagulation.
E. Administer Vitamin K only and monitor the patient closely.
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A 68-year-old man presents to the emergency department with fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath on exertion. His blood tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 7.5 g/dL, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 72 fL, and low serum ferritin. He has a history of osteoarthritis and takes ibuprofen regularly. What is the most likely cause of his anemia?

A. Thalassemia minor
B. Vitamin B12 deficiency
C. Chronic blood loss due to gastrointestinal bleeding
D. Anemia of chronic disease
E. Hemolytic anemia
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Giant hiatal hernia, CT image. 63 year old man.
Image by Jmarchn CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 63-year-old man presents with increasing shortness of breath and epigastric discomfort, particularly after meals. He has a history of GERD. Physical examination reveals decreased breath sounds at the left lung base. An axial CT image is shown. Considering the clinical presentation and imaging findings, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Arrange urgent upper gastrointestinal endoscopy
B. Request a barium swallow study
C. Referral for surgical repair
D. Discharge with advice on lifestyle modification and follow-up
E. Initiate high-dose proton pump inhibitor therapy
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A 68-year-old woman with a history of heart failure presents to the emergency department with increasing shortness of breath and lower extremity edema. She has been taking furosemide 40mg daily for the past year. Her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, heart rate is 90 bpm, and respiratory rate is 24 breaths/min. An ECG shows flattened T waves and prominent U waves. Which of the following is the most likely electrolyte abnormality contributing to her presentation?

A. Hypomagnesemia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypokalemia
E. Hyponatremia
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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 78-year-old male on warfarin presents to the ED after a fall. He complains of dyspnea and right-sided chest pain. His INR is 5.0. Vitals: HR 110, BP 100/60, RR 28, SpO2 90% on room air. The provided image was obtained. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A. Administer IV protamine sulfate
B. Tube thoracostomy
C. Administer IV vitamin K
D. Administer IV tranexamic acid
E. Observation with serial chest X-rays
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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

An 82-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with increasing shortness of breath and intermittent chest discomfort over the past week. She reports some difficulty swallowing larger food boluses recently but denies significant heartburn. Her past medical history includes hypertension and osteoarthritis. On examination, her vital signs are stable: BP 135/85 mmHg, HR 78 bpm, RR 18/min, SpO2 94% on room air, Temp 36.8°C. Auscultation of the chest reveals decreased breath sounds at the left base. A central venous catheter is noted in the right subclavian vein. Initial blood tests show a mild normocytic anaemia (Hb 105 g/L) and normal inflammatory markers. An urgent imaging study is performed. Considering the clinical presentation and the provided imaging study, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Administer intravenous diuretics for suspected acute decompensated heart failure.
B. Prepare for immediate surgical reduction and repair.
C. Initiate broad-spectrum antibiotics for suspected community-acquired pneumonia.
D. Arrange a contrast swallow study or CT scan of the chest and abdomen.
E. Prescribe a high-dose proton pump inhibitor and review in outpatient clinic.
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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

An 82-year-old female presents with a 3-month history of intermittent retrosternal burning pain, worse after meals, and occasional shortness of breath on exertion. Vital signs are stable. Physical exam unremarkable. A chest X-ray is performed. Considering the findings on the image, what is the most appropriate initial management step?

A. Reassure the patient that the finding is benign and requires no further action.
B. Urgent surgical consultation for repair.
C. Initiate a trial of proton pump inhibitor therapy.
D. Proceed directly to oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy (OGD).
E. Refer for a stress echocardiogram to rule out cardiac ischaemia.
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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male presents to the ED with sudden onset shortness of breath and right-sided chest pain. He has a history of atrial fibrillation and has been taking warfarin for the past 5 years. His INR is currently 6.0. A CT scan of the chest is performed (image attached). What is the MOST appropriate initial management step?

A. Administer intravenous vitamin K and prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC)
B. Administer intravenous tranexamic acid
C. Administer intravenous protamine sulfate
D. Perform a needle thoracostomy
E. Observe and monitor the patient's respiratory status
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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 68-year-old male on warfarin presents post-fall with dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain. INR is 4.8. Vitals: HR 115, BP 95/60, RR 26, SpO2 89% on air. The provided image was obtained. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A. Perform needle thoracostomy
B. Order a V/Q scan
C. Administer vitamin K
D. Insert a chest tube
E. Administer IV fluids and observe
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A 45-year-old man presents to the general practice clinic with a 6-month history of progressive shortness of breath and a persistent dry cough. He works as a construction worker and has a 20-pack-year smoking history. On examination, he has clubbing of the fingers and fine inspiratory crackles at the lung bases. Pulmonary function tests show a restrictive pattern. A high-resolution CT scan of the chest reveals reticular opacities and honeycombing predominantly in the lower lobes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Sarcoidosis
B. Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
C. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
D. Asbestosis
E. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 68-year-old male on warfarin presents with pleuritic chest pain and mild dyspnea. INR is 4.5. The image was obtained. What is the MOST appropriate initial intervention?

A. Observation and serial chest X-rays
B. Urgent bronchoscopy
C. Vitamin K administration
D. Chest tube insertion
E. IV protamine sulfate
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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 78-year-old male on warfarin for atrial fibrillation presents with acute severe dyspnoea and right-sided pleuritic chest pain. Vitals: T 36.8°C, HR 95, BP 110/70, RR 24, SpO2 92% RA. Exam: decreased breath sounds, dullness right hemithorax. A CT scan of the chest is performed. Considering the patient's presentation, history, and the imaging findings, which is the most appropriate immediate management?

A. Arrange for urgent bronchoscopy to rule out airway obstruction
B. Observe the patient closely in the intensive care unit without specific intervention
C. Increase the dose of warfarin and monitor INR
D. Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics and arrange for thoracentesis
E. Administer Vitamin K and Prothrombinex (PCC) and arrange for chest tube insertion
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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male presents to the ED with sudden onset shortness of breath and right-sided chest pain. He reports a recent fall but denies any significant trauma. He has a history of atrial fibrillation and is currently taking warfarin. His INR is 6.5. A CT scan of the chest is performed (image attached). What is the MOST appropriate immediate next step in management?

A. Observe and repeat INR in 6 hours
B. Administer intravenous vitamin K and prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC)
C. Perform a needle thoracostomy
D. Administer intravenous protamine sulfate
E. Administer intravenous heparin
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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male presents to the ED with increasing shortness of breath and epigastric pain, especially when lying down. He has a history of GORD, hypertension and COPD. His vitals are stable. An X-ray is performed. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Administer intravenous antibiotics for possible aspiration pneumonia
B. Prescribe a short course of oral corticosteroids for COPD exacerbation
C. Order a barium swallow study to assess esophageal motility
D. Initiate a proton pump inhibitor and schedule an upper endoscopy
E. Perform a diagnostic thoracentesis to rule out pleural effusion
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A 55-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 3-month history of fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath on exertion. She has a history of menorrhagia. On examination, she appears pale and has conjunctival pallor. Blood tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 70 fL, and low serum ferritin. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Arrange for a blood transfusion
B. Refer for a colonoscopy
C. Prescribe erythropoietin
D. Start oral iron supplementation
E. Order a bone marrow biopsy
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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male presents with increasing shortness of breath and epigastric discomfort, particularly after meals. He has a history of well-controlled hypertension. An X-ray is performed. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Perform an upper endoscopy
B. Refer for surgical consultation for fundoplication
C. Initiate a proton pump inhibitor and lifestyle modifications
D. Prescribe a prokinetic agent such as metoclopramide
E. Order a barium swallow study
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A 10-year-old boy with a history of asthma presents to the emergency department with wheezing and shortness of breath. His mother reports that he has been using his salbutamol inhaler more frequently over the past two days. On examination, he has a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute, and his oxygen saturation is 92% on room air. What is the most appropriate initial management step?

A. Administer nebulized salbutamol
B. Administer intravenous magnesium sulfate
C. Provide supplemental oxygen
D. Increase the dose of inhaled corticosteroids
E. Start oral corticosteroids
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A 65-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension presents with exertional dyspnea and fatigue. His physical examination reveals a blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg, a heart rate of 88 bpm, and a soft S4 gallop. There is no peripheral edema. An electrocardiogram shows left ventricular hypertrophy with repolarization abnormalities. Which of the following diagnostic tests would be most appropriate to evaluate for underlying coronary artery disease in this patient?

A. Coronary angiography
B. Cardiac MRI
C. 24-hour Holter monitoring
D. Transthoracic echocardiography without stress
E. Exercise stress echocardiography
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A 68-year-old man with known severe COPD presents with a 3-day history of increased cough, purulent sputum, and worsening dyspnoea. He uses salbutamol more frequently. On examination, he is afebrile, respiratory rate 24, SpO2 90% on air. Scattered wheezes are heard. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management step?

A. Initiate oral corticosteroids and antibiotics.
B. Administer high-flow oxygen via nasal cannula.
C. Prepare for non-invasive ventilation.
D. Order an urgent chest X-ray.
E. Give intravenous salbutamol infusion.
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A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP with worsening shortness of breath, cough, and wheeze over 2 days, requiring her salbutamol reliever daily and waking her at night. Her PEF is 60% of her personal best. She is alert, speaking in sentences, RR 22, HR 95. Based on Australian guidelines, what is the most appropriate initial management step?

A. Prescribe a course of oral prednisolone.
B. Order a chest X-ray to rule out pneumonia.
C. Increase the dose of her regular inhaled corticosteroid.
D. Arrange immediate transfer to the nearest emergency department.
E. Administer inhaled salbutamol via spacer and reassess clinical status and PEF.
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Giant hiatal hernia, CT image. 63 year old man.
Image by Jmarchn CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 63-year-old man presents to the ED with increasing shortness of breath and epigastric discomfort, particularly after meals. He has a history of well-controlled hypertension and takes no regular medications. Physical examination reveals decreased breath sounds at the left lung base. An abdominal CT scan is performed, the axial view is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Discharge with reassurance and follow-up with a gastroenterologist in 6 months
B. Barium swallow study to further evaluate the anatomy
C. Surgical consultation for elective repair
D. Initiate a trial of proton pump inhibitors and lifestyle modifications
E. Esophageal manometry to assess esophageal motility
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A 68-year-old man with a history of hypertension and coronary artery disease presents to the emergency department with worsening shortness of breath and fatigue over the past week. On examination, he has elevated jugular venous pressure, bilateral lung crackles, and peripheral edema. An echocardiogram reveals reduced ejection fraction and dilated ventricles. Which of the following best explains the pathophysiological mechanism leading to his symptoms?

A. Increased peripheral resistance leading to left ventricular hypertrophy
B. Decreased venous return causing systemic hypotension
C. Enhanced myocardial contractility resulting in fluid retention
D. Decreased cardiac output leading to activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
E. Increased cardiac output causing pulmonary congestion
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A 34-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with acute-onset shortness of breath. A CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) is ordered, shown in the photograph, confirming a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment option for this patient?

A. Thrombolytic therapy.
B. Caval filter.
C. Unfractionated heparin or low-molecular weight heparin (LMWH).
D. Dabigatran.
E. Warfarin.
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Giant hiatal hernia, CT image. 63 year old man.
Image by Jmarchn CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 63-year-old man presents to the ED with increasing shortness of breath and epigastric discomfort, particularly after meals. He has a history of GERD managed with occasional antacids. Physical examination reveals decreased breath sounds at the left lung base. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed, the axial view is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Surgical consultation for consideration of hiatal hernia repair
B. Initiate a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) and reassess in 4 weeks
C. Perform a diagnostic thoracentesis to rule out pleural effusion
D. Prescribe prokinetic agents to improve gastric emptying
E. Order an upper endoscopy to evaluate for esophagitis
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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male presents to the ED with increasing shortness of breath and epigastric pain, especially when lying down. He has a history of GORD, hypertension and COPD. His vitals are stable. An X-ray is performed. What is the MOST likely underlying cause of his presentation?

A. Gastric malignancy
B. Esophageal dysmotility
C. Reduced lower esophageal sphincter tone
D. Aortic aneurysm
E. Pneumonia
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A 45-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 3-month history of persistent cough and shortness of breath. He is a non-smoker and works as a carpenter. On examination, there are bilateral inspiratory crackles at the lung bases. A chest X-ray shows reticular opacities predominantly in the lower lobes. Pulmonary function tests reveal a restrictive pattern. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Bronchiectasis
B. Asthma
C. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
D. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
E. Sarcoidosis
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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 78-year-old male on warfarin for atrial fibrillation presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe dyspnoea and right-sided pleuritic chest pain. He denies trauma. On examination, he is tachypnoeic, oxygen saturation is 92% on room air. Blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, heart rate 95 bpm. Chest examination reveals decreased breath sounds on the right. A CT scan of the chest is performed. Considering the patient's clinical presentation, medical history, and the findings demonstrated in the provided image, which of the following interventions is most critical to initiate *before* considering invasive drainage?

A. Insertion of a large-bore chest tube
B. Urgent surgical exploration of the chest
C. Administration of prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC) or Factor IX complex
D. Initiation of therapeutic heparin infusion
E. Intravenous administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics
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A 70-year-old woman with a history of hypertension presents with fatigue, shortness of breath, and bilateral leg swelling. Echocardiography shows an ejection fraction of 30%. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?

A. Calcium channel blocker
B. Nitrate therapy
C. ACE inhibitor and beta-blocker
D. Digoxin
E. Diuretic therapy alone
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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male on warfarin presents with sudden onset shortness of breath and right-sided chest pain after a fall. His INR is 4.5. The provided image was obtained. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Administration of intravenous vitamin K
B. Bronchoscopy to rule out airway obstruction
C. Observation with serial chest X-rays
D. Administration of prothrombin complex concentrate
E. Insertion of an intercostal chest drain
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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 78-year-old male on warfarin for atrial fibrillation presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe dyspnoea and right-sided pleuritic chest pain. He denies trauma. On examination, he is tachypnoeic, oxygen saturation is 92% on room air. Blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, heart rate 95 bpm. Chest examination reveals decreased breath sounds on the right. A CT scan of the chest is performed. Considering the patient's clinical presentation, medical history, and the findings demonstrated in the provided image, which of the following represents the most appropriate immediate management strategy?

A. Arrange for urgent bronchoscopy to investigate airway obstruction.
B. Increase warfarin dose and monitor INR.
C. Observe closely in the emergency department with serial chest X-rays.
D. Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics and arrange for thoracentesis.
E. Administer Vitamin K and Prothrombinex (PCC) and arrange for chest tube insertion.
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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 72-year-old patient presents with intermittent chest discomfort and increasing shortness of breath, particularly after meals. Vitals are stable. Physical examination is unremarkable. A chest X-ray is performed. Considering the radiographic findings in the context of the patient's symptoms, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Trial of high-dose proton pump inhibitors
B. High-resolution CT chest
C. Barium swallow study
D. Referral for surgical assessment and repair
E. Urgent cardiac catheterisation
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A 72-year-old man with fatigue, a past myocardial infarction at age 55, breathlessness on stairs, and ankle marks has an LVEF < 40% on echocardiogram. Which of the following medications is known to improve outcomes in Heart Failure with Reduced Ejection Fraction (HFrEF)?

A. Digoxin
B. Verapamil
C. Frusemide
D. Amlodipine
E. Eplerenone
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A 62-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a 3-month history of progressive shortness of breath, fatigue, and a persistent dry cough. She has a history of rheumatoid arthritis, for which she takes methotrexate and low-dose prednisone. She denies fever, weight loss, or night sweats. On examination, she has clubbing of the fingers and fine inspiratory crackles at the lung bases. Her oxygen saturation is 92% on room air. A chest X-ray shows reticular opacities predominantly in the lower lung zones. Pulmonary function tests reveal a restrictive pattern with reduced diffusion capacity for carbon monoxide (DLCO). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Initiate supplemental oxygen therapy
B. Start azathioprine
C. Refer for lung biopsy
D. Increase the dose of prednisone
E. High-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) of the chest
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A 65-year-old patient with a history of DVT presents with sudden onset dyspnoea and pleuritic chest pain. Examination is unremarkable except for mild tachypnoea. Wells score is 4. Which initial investigation is most appropriate in the diagnostic pathway?

A. D-dimer
B. Lower limb ultrasound
C. V/Q scan
D. CT Pulmonary Angiogram (CTPA)
E. Chest X-ray
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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male presents with increasing shortness of breath and epigastric discomfort, particularly after meals. He has a history of well-controlled hypertension and takes aspirin daily. An X-ray is performed. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Prescribe a H2 receptor antagonist
B. Order a barium swallow study
C. Initiate a proton pump inhibitor and lifestyle modifications
D. Perform an upper endoscopy
E. Refer for surgical consultation for fundoplication
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A 5-year-old boy presents with wheezing, shortness of breath, and a history of recurrent respiratory infections. His symptoms worsen with exercise and during the night. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Bronchiolitis
C. Asthma
D. Viral pneumonia
E. Foreign body aspiration
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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

An 82-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with increasing shortness of breath and intermittent chest discomfort over the past week. She reports some difficulty swallowing larger food boluses recently but denies significant heartburn. Her past medical history includes hypertension and osteoarthritis. On examination, her vital signs are stable: BP 135/85 mmHg, HR 78 bpm, RR 18/min, SpO2 94% on room air, Temp 36.8°C. Auscultation of the chest reveals decreased breath sounds at the left base. A central venous catheter is noted in the right subclavian vein. Initial blood tests show a mild normocytic anaemia (Hb 105 g/L) and normal inflammatory markers. An urgent imaging study is performed. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings on the imaging study, which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of the patient's anaemia?

A. Chronic mucosal erosion within the displaced viscus
B. Vitamin B12 deficiency secondary to impaired absorption from dysphagia
C. Anaemia of chronic disease exacerbated by her underlying osteoarthritis
D. Acute blood loss from a peptic ulcer distal to the pylorus
E. Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia associated with the indwelling central venous catheter
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Giant hiatal hernia, CT image. 63 year old man.
Image by Jmarchn CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 63-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of increasing shortness of breath and epigastric discomfort over the past several months. He reports feeling full quickly after eating only small amounts. He denies any chest pain, fever, or recent weight loss. His past medical history includes hypertension and well-controlled type 2 diabetes. He takes lisinopril and metformin daily. On examination, his vital signs are stable: blood pressure 130/80 mmHg, heart rate 82 bpm, respiratory rate 18 breaths/min, and oxygen saturation 96% on room air. Auscultation of the chest reveals decreased breath sounds at the left base. Abdominal examination reveals mild epigastric tenderness to palpation, but no rebound tenderness or guarding. The provided image was obtained. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Initiate a proton pump inhibitor and monitor symptoms
B. Esophageal manometry
C. Endoscopic surveillance every 3 years
D. Surgical repair
E. Barium swallow study
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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
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A 75-year-old male on warfarin for atrial fibrillation presents with acute dyspnoea and pleuritic chest pain. He is hypotensive with a BP of 90/60 mmHg and tachycardic at 110 bpm. His INR is 7.2. A chest CT is performed (image attached). Considering the clinical context and imaging findings, what is the MOST appropriate immediate management step?

A. Administer intravenous Vitamin K and Prothrombinex-VF
B. Initiate high-flow nasal cannula oxygen
C. Arrange for urgent surgical consultation for thoracotomy
D. Perform urgent tube thoracostomy
E. Administer intravenous furosemide
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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 78-year-old male on warfarin presents with acute shortness of breath. INR is 5.0. The provided image was obtained. What is the MOST likely underlying cause?

A. Pneumonia
B. Anticoagulation-related bleeding
C. Heart failure exacerbation
D. Pulmonary embolism
E. Spontaneous pneumothorax
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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male on warfarin presents with sudden onset dyspnea. His INR is 6.0. The provided image was obtained. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A. Administer IV vitamin K and prothrombin complex concentrate
B. Observe and repeat imaging in 24 hours
C. Perform needle thoracostomy
D. Administer IV protamine sulfate
E. Administer IV furosemide
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A 72-year-old man presents with 4 weeks of shortness of breath (SOB), shoulder pain, weight loss, cervical lymphadenopathy, and finger clubbing. What is the likely diagnosis?

A. Lung cancer
B. Tuberculosis
C. Multiple myeloma
D. Lymphoma
E. Sarcoidosis
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A 62-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with acute onset of chest pain and shortness of breath. She describes the pain as sharp and worse with inspiration. She has a history of deep vein thrombosis and is currently on warfarin. On examination, her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, heart rate is 110 bpm, respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation is 88% on room air. Her jugular venous pressure is elevated, and she has clear lung fields on auscultation. An ECG shows sinus tachycardia with right axis deviation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Acute myocardial infarction
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Pericarditis
D. Pneumothorax
E. Aortic dissection
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A 62-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset chest pain and shortness of breath that started 2 hours ago while he was gardening. He describes the pain as a tightness across his chest, radiating to his left arm. He has a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia, and he is a current smoker. On examination, his blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, heart rate is 110 bpm, respiratory rate is 22 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation is 94% on room air. He appears anxious and diaphoretic. An ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate management step?

A. Administer intravenous morphine for pain relief
B. Administer beta-blockers to control heart rate
C. Administer oxygen to maintain saturation above 95%
D. Administer aspirin and initiate primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)
E. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin and observe for response
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