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young adult

Practice targeted AMC-style multiple-choice questions on young adult.

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A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe testicular pain on the right side. He reports no trauma or previous episodes. On examination, the right testis is swollen, tender, and lies higher in the scrotum compared to the left. The cremasteric reflex is absent on the affected side. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Doppler ultrasound of the scrotum
B. Urgent surgical exploration
C. Analgesia and observation
D. Empirical antibiotics for epididymitis
E. Manual detorsion attempt
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A 28-year-old male presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain, fever, and bloody diarrhea for the past 2 days. He has a known history of Crohn's disease, diagnosed 5 years ago, and has been managed with azathioprine. He admits to inconsistent adherence to his medication regimen over the past year due to feeling well. On examination, he is febrile (38.9°C), tachycardic (110 bpm), and hypotensive (90/60 mmHg). His abdomen is distended and tender to palpation, particularly in the lower quadrants, with guarding. Laboratory investigations reveal a white blood cell count of 18,000/mm³ with a left shift, hemoglobin of 10 g/dL, platelets of 450,000/mm³, albumin of 28 g/L, and C-reactive protein (CRP) of 150 mg/L. An abdominal X-ray shows dilated loops of bowel. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Perform a colonoscopy to assess the extent of the inflammation and obtain biopsies
B. Administer intravenous corticosteroids and anti-diarrheal medications
C. Increase the dose of azathioprine and monitor the patient's symptoms
D. Intravenous fluids, broad-spectrum antibiotics, and urgent surgical consultation
E. Start infliximab infusion immediately after blood cultures are taken
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Ileitis terminalis bei langjaehrigem Morbus Crohn 63W - CT und MRT - 001
Image by Hellerhoff CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 32-year-old male with Crohn's disease presents with worsening abdominal pain and diarrhea despite being on maintenance infliximab. The provided imaging was obtained. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Increase the dose of infliximab
B. Start a course of oral corticosteroids
C. Perform a colonoscopy with biopsy
D. Surgical resection of the affected bowel segment
E. Initiate treatment with metronidazole and ciprofloxacin
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of fever, chills, and right flank pain. She has a history of recurrent urinary tract infections. On examination, she is febrile with a temperature of 38.5°C, her heart rate is 110 bpm, and her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg. There is tenderness on palpation of the right costovertebral angle. Urinalysis shows pyuria and bacteriuria. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

A. Intravenous fluids only
B. Observation and repeat urinalysis
C. Pain management with NSAIDs
D. Intravenous antibiotics
E. Oral antibiotics
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An 18-year-old teenage girl presents with a sudden change in behavior at a music festival, appearing confused and aggressive after consuming 5-6 vodkas, with uncertainty about illicit drug use. What is the most appropriate next step in her management in the Australian context?

A. Administer IV fluids to sober her up.
B. Leave the patient alone to cool off.
C. Calmly de-escalate in a quiet room and assess for underlying causes.
D. Restrain the patient physically until she calms down.
E. Immediately administer IV droperidol 10 mg.
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A 28-year-old woman with a mother diagnosed with colorectal cancer at 45 and a maternal uncle at 50 seeks advice. She is otherwise well. What is the most appropriate next step in her management?

A. Annual FIT testing.
B. Consider prophylactic colectomy.
C. Genetic counselling and testing.
D. Colonoscopy screening at 40.
E. Reassurance and review.
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A 17-year-old teenage girl presents with menorrhagia and a family history of heavy periods and hysterectomy, suggestive of Von Willebrand Disease (VWD). Which statement about VWD is correct?

A. There are multiple VWD patterns; most are autosomal dominant (AD).
B. Treatment involves iron supplementation only.
C. It affects females more than males, with a ratio of approximately 2:1.
D. It is an X-linked recessive disorder.
E. Type 1 is the most severe form.
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of a new, intensely itchy rash on her elbows, knees, and scalp. On examination, the GP notes symmetrical, erythematous papules and plaques with overlying silvery scales. The patient reports a family history of similar skin conditions. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Contact Dermatitis
B. Tinea Corporis
C. Pityriasis Rosea
D. Eczema (Atopic Dermatitis)
E. Psoriasis
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A 23-year-old backpacker doing farm work presents with a low-grade fever for 4 days. Q fever is suspected. What is the most appropriate diagnostic method for acute Q fever in Australia?

A. Chest X-ray
B. Serology (IFA for Phase II antibodies)
C. Serum PCR for C. burnetii.
D. Rapid antigen test for C. burnetii.
E. Serial blood cultures
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A 25-year-old gentleman presents with 3 days of rhinorrhea, fever, cough, and abdominal pain. On examination, his temperature is 39.6°C, he has reduced breath sounds, and an enlarged spleen. Which of the following causative pathogens, if identified, would require mandatory notification in Australia?

A. Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)
B. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
C. Adenovirus
D. Chlamydia psittaci
E. Parainfluenzae
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A 28-year-old woman presents with a palpable lump in her left breast, noticed two weeks ago. It feels smooth, mobile, and non-tender. No family history of breast cancer. On examination, a 2cm, firm, mobile mass is noted. Considering Australian guidelines for a palpable breast lump in this age group, what is the most appropriate initial investigation?

A. MRI breast
B. Core biopsy
C. Mammography
D. Ultrasound scan
E. Fine needle aspiration cytology
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe right lower abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. She reports that the pain started suddenly a few hours ago and has been worsening. Her last menstrual period was two weeks ago. On examination, she has tenderness and guarding in the right lower quadrant. A pregnancy test is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Pelvic inflammatory disease
B. Renal colic
C. Ovarian torsion
D. Ectopic pregnancy
E. Acute appendicitis
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PET-CT of a tuberculoma
Image by Annemie Snoeckx, Pieter Reyntiens, Damien Desbuquoit, Maarten J. Spinhoven, Paul E. Van Schil, Jan P. van Meerbeeck, Paul M. Parizel CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 32-year-old male, recent immigrant from a high-TB prevalence country, presents with a persistent cough and night sweats for the past two months. He denies fever or weight loss. Physical examination is unremarkable except for mild, diffuse rhonchi on auscultation. Sputum cultures are pending. A PET-CT scan of the chest was performed, the axial view is shown. Given the clinical context and imaging findings, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Prescribe a course of broad-spectrum antibiotics for presumed bacterial pneumonia
B. Initiate a four-drug anti-tuberculosis regimen
C. Repeat the PET-CT scan in three months to assess for interval growth
D. Start a course of oral corticosteroids to reduce inflammation
E. Order a bronchoscopy with transbronchial biopsy
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PET-CT of a tuberculoma
Image by Annemie Snoeckx, Pieter Reyntiens, Damien Desbuquoit, Maarten J. Spinhoven, Paul E. Van Schil, Jan P. van Meerbeeck, Paul M. Parizel CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 28-year-old female, recently emigrated from Southeast Asia, presents to her general practitioner with complaints of fatigue, a persistent low-grade fever (37.8°C), and a non-productive cough that has been present for approximately one month. She denies any significant past medical history and is not currently taking any medications. Physical examination reveals slightly diminished breath sounds in the upper right lobe, but is otherwise unremarkable. Initial blood work, including a complete blood count and comprehensive metabolic panel, are within normal limits. A chest X-ray revealed a suspicious lesion in the right upper lobe, prompting a PET-CT scan, an axial slice of which is shown. Given the patient's history, clinical presentation, and the findings on the PET-CT scan, which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in the diagnostic workup?

A. Prescribe a course of broad-spectrum antibiotics to cover community-acquired pneumonia.
B. Order a CT-guided needle biopsy of the lesion.
C. Start empiric treatment with isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol (HRZE).
D. Refer the patient to a pulmonologist for bronchoscopy with bronchoalveolar lavage.
E. Initiate sputum acid-fast bacilli (AFB) smears and cultures.
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Synchronous multiple small bowel intussusceptions in an adult with blue rubber bleb naevus syndrome. CT scan of abdomen showing i) multiple intussusceptions demonstrating doughnut signs (white arrows), intussusceptiens [A], intussusceptum [B], distended loop of small

bowel [C] and ii) haemangioma of right quadratus lumborum muscle (dark arrow).
Image by Lee C, Debnath D, Whitburn T, Farrugia M, Gonzalez F CC BY 2.0 · Source

A 35-year-old male with a history of multiple cutaneous vascular lesions presents with recurrent episodes of crampy abdominal pain and melena over the past month. His vital signs are stable. An abdominal CT scan is performed. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the provided image, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Obtain an urgent abdominal MRI for better soft tissue detail
B. Surgical consultation for potential exploration
C. Conservative management with IV fluids and observation
D. Urgent colonoscopy to assess the bowel lumen
E. Attempt hydrostatic reduction with barium enema
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A 35-year-old lady who underwent laparoscopic appendicectomy presents 3 days later with diarrhea, fever (39.5°C), and erythematous port sites. She had a 5-day course of cefotaxime. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Pelvic abscess
B. Post-operative enteritis
C. Intra-abdominal abscess
D. Clostridium difficile infection
E. Surgical site infection
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A 28-year-old patient with autism spectrum disorder is prescribed risperidone for aggressive behavior. His parents report significant weight gain. What is the most appropriate next step?

A. Monitor and continue risperidone.
B. Add metformin.
C. Start a low-calorie diet.
D. Switch to aripiprazole.
E. Discontinue risperidone.
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A 25-year-old woman with a history of sexual assault presents with intrusive thoughts, avoidance behaviors, and emotional numbness. She is diagnosed with PTSD. What is the first-line pharmacological treatment for this condition?

A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
B. Benzodiazepines
C. Beta-blockers
D. Mood stabilizers
E. Antipsychotics
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PET-CT of a tuberculoma
Image by Annemie Snoeckx, Pieter Reyntiens, Damien Desbuquoit, Maarten J. Spinhoven, Paul E. Van Schil, Jan P. van Meerbeeck, Paul M. Parizel CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 28-year-old immunocompetent patient presents with a chronic cough and low-grade fever. Initial investigations, including sputum microscopy, are negative. A PET-CT scan was performed (image shown). What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A. Bronchoscopy with biopsy
B. Empiric antibiotic therapy
C. Referral for surgical resection
D. Repeat sputum cultures
E. Initiate anti-tuberculosis therapy
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PET-CT of a tuberculoma
Image by Annemie Snoeckx, Pieter Reyntiens, Damien Desbuquoit, Maarten J. Spinhoven, Paul E. Van Schil, Jan P. van Meerbeeck, Paul M. Parizel CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 28-year-old male presents with a persistent cough and fatigue. A PET-CT scan was performed. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

A. Lung abscess
B. Pneumocystis pneumonia
C. Aspergilloma
D. Bronchogenic carcinoma
E. Tuberculoma
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A 30-year-old veteran presents with recurrent nightmares, flashbacks of combat, and hypervigilance. He avoids crowded places and has difficulty sleeping. His symptoms have persisted for over 6 months and are affecting his daily functioning. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Major depressive disorder
B. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
C. Generalized anxiety disorder
D. Schizophrenia
E. Bipolar disorder
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A 30-year-old woman presents with fever, hemoptysis, and night sweats. A chest X-ray shows a round lesion with an air-fluid level. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Tuberculosis
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Bronchiectasis
D. Lung cancer
E. Lung abscess
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A 30-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe right lower quadrant abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. The pain started around the umbilicus and then localized to the right lower quadrant. On examination, he has tenderness and guarding in the right lower quadrant. His temperature is 38.3°C, heart rate is 100 bpm, and blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Diverticulitis
B. Acute appendicitis
C. Acute cholecystitis
D. Renal colic
E. Gastroenteritis
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 2-week history of fever, night sweats, and a non-productive cough. She has recently returned from a trip to rural Queensland. On examination, she has crackles in the right upper lung field. A chest X-ray shows a cavitary lesion in the right upper lobe. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Tuberculosis
B. Lung abscess
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Sarcoidosis
E. Pneumonia
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A 25-year-old man and a 23-year-old woman, newlyweds, are planning a 3-week trip to South America. The woman is not on oral contraceptives and wants to conceive. They are concerned about Zika. What advice can you provide?

A. Start OCP now and avoid unprotected sex for 3 months post-trip.
B. No need to delay pregnancy; just use mosquito repellent.
C. The Zika vaccine is available and recommended.
D. Defer pregnancy for 2 weeks post-trip.
E. Defer pregnancy for 6 months post-trip.
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner complaining of a persistent, intensely itchy rash on her elbows, knees, and scalp for the past 6 months. She reports that the itching is worse at night and after hot showers. She has tried over-the-counter hydrocortisone cream without relief. On examination, the GP notes symmetrical, excoriated papules and plaques on the extensor surfaces of her elbows and knees, as well as some scaling on her scalp. The patient also mentions a history of recurrent mouth ulcers. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial investigation to confirm the suspected diagnosis?

A. Skin biopsy for histopathology and direct immunofluorescence
B. Allergy testing (skin prick or RAST) for common environmental allergens
C. Full blood count (FBC) and liver function tests (LFTs)
D. Potassium hydroxide (KOH) examination of skin scrapings
E. IgA anti-endomysial antibody (EMA) and IgA tissue transglutaminase (tTG) antibody testing
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A 25-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 2-week history of a painful, swollen right knee. He denies any trauma or recent travel. He has a history of psoriasis. On examination, the right knee is warm, swollen, and tender with a reduced range of motion. There are no other joint abnormalities. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Gout
B. Septic arthritis
C. Psoriatic arthritis
D. Reactive arthritis
E. Rheumatoid arthritis
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A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain that started around his umbilicus and has now localized to the right lower quadrant. He has nausea and has vomited twice. On examination, he has tenderness and guarding in the right lower quadrant. His temperature is 37.8°C, and his white blood cell count is elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Diverticulitis
B. Renal colic
C. Cholecystitis
D. Gastroenteritis
E. Acute appendicitis
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A 31-year-old man presents with gradual onset lateral knee pain that worsens with running. There is no history of trauma. The pain is localized above the joint line, and there is no swelling. What is the likely diagnosis?

A. Lateral meniscus tear
B. Iliotibial band syndrome
C. Patellofemoral pain syndrome
D. LCL sprain
E. Quadriceps tendon tear
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 3-day history of fever, sore throat, and difficulty swallowing. She has no significant past medical history and is not on any medications. On examination, she has swollen, tender anterior cervical lymph nodes and erythematous tonsils with white exudates. A rapid antigen detection test for group A Streptococcus is positive. What is the most appropriate treatment for her condition?

A. Azithromycin
B. Clindamycin
C. Penicillin V
D. Ceftriaxone
E. Amoxicillin
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A 16-year-old boy is diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes mellitus after presenting with polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. His blood tests show elevated blood glucose levels and the presence of autoantibodies against pancreatic beta cells. In contrast, a 55-year-old woman is diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes mellitus, characterized by insulin resistance and obesity. Which of the following best describes the pathophysiological differences between Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes?

A. Type 1 diabetes involves insulin resistance and obesity, whereas Type 2 diabetes is due to genetic mutations affecting insulin production.
B. Type 1 diabetes is caused by insulin resistance due to obesity, while Type 2 diabetes results from autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells.
C. Type 1 diabetes is characterized by insulin resistance, while Type 2 diabetes involves absolute insulin deficiency due to beta-cell destruction.
D. Both Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes are primarily caused by autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells.
E. Type 1 diabetes involves autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells, leading to absolute insulin deficiency, whereas Type 2 diabetes is characterized by insulin resistance and relative insulin deficiency.
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A 35-year-old woman with a family history of BRCA1-associated breast cancer is considering genetic testing. She is asymptomatic and has no personal history of cancer. What is the MOST appropriate initial step in her management?

A. Ordering a BRCA1/2 gene mutation analysis
B. Prescribing prophylactic tamoxifen
C. Suggesting prophylactic bilateral mastectomy
D. Recommending annual mammography starting at age 25
E. Referral to a clinical geneticist or genetic counselor for pre-test counseling and risk assessment
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A 22-year-old lady was wrongly given a B12 prescription for another patient. The error was noticed later at the pharmacy. What is the next step?

A. Notify the practice manager.
B. Report to AHPRA.
C. Apologize to the patient for the error.
D. Review practice procedures.
E. Document in patient notes.
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A 34-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with acute-onset shortness of breath. A CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) is ordered, shown in the photograph, confirming a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment option for this patient?

A. Thrombolytic therapy.
B. Caval filter.
C. Unfractionated heparin or low-molecular weight heparin (LMWH).
D. Dabigatran.
E. Warfarin.
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A 32-year-old male presents to his general practitioner complaining of severe anal pain, especially during and after bowel movements. He also reports seeing bright red blood on the toilet paper. On examination, there is a visible tear in the anal mucosa at the 6 o'clock position. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial management strategy?

A. Stool softeners, topical analgesics, and sitz baths
B. Incision and drainage
C. High-fibre diet alone
D. Lateral internal sphincterotomy
E. Rubber band ligation
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A 30-year-old woman with bipolar disorder is prescribed risperidone for manic episodes. She develops tremors and rigidity. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
C. Tardive dyskinesia
D. Serotonin syndrome
E. Akathisia
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A 25-year-old man with schizophrenia is started on risperidone. After a few weeks, he develops gynecomastia and galactorrhea. What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

A. Hyperprolactinemia
B. Diabetes insipidus
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Cushing syndrome
E. Adrenal insufficiency
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A 30-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of fever, sore throat, and a diffuse rash. She recently started taking a new medication for her epilepsy. On examination, she is febrile at 38.2°C, with a heart rate of 100 bpm and blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg. The rash is erythematous and involves the trunk and extremities, with some areas of desquamation. Laboratory tests reveal leukocytosis with eosinophilia and elevated liver enzymes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Stevens-Johnson syndrome
B. Scarlet fever
C. Toxic shock syndrome
D. Kawasaki disease
E. Drug reaction with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms (DRESS) syndrome
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A 30-year-old woman presents to her GP with fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance over the past 6 months. She also reports constipation and dry skin. On examination, she has a slightly enlarged, non-tender thyroid gland. Her TSH level is elevated, and free T4 is low. What is the most appropriate treatment for this condition?

A. Radioactive iodine therapy
B. Levothyroxine
C. Methimazole
D. Beta-blockers
E. Thyroidectomy
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe right lower abdominal pain. She reports nausea and vomiting but denies fever or urinary symptoms. Her last menstrual period was two weeks ago, and she is sexually active. On examination, she has tenderness in the right lower quadrant with guarding. A pelvic ultrasound reveals a 5 cm right ovarian cyst with free fluid in the pelvis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Pelvic inflammatory disease
B. Ruptured ovarian cyst
C. Ovarian torsion
D. Ectopic pregnancy
E. Appendicitis
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A 35-year-old woman with a strong family history of breast cancer (mother and sister diagnosed before age 40) is concerned about her risk. What is the most appropriate genetic testing for this patient?

A. HER2/neu testing
B. KRAS mutation testing
C. p53 mutation testing
D. Estrogen receptor testing
E. BRCA1/BRCA2 mutation testing
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A 20-year-old female medical student arrives late, parties, but is attentive in consultations. What is the next step?

A. Notify the university regarding suspected alcohol use during placement.
B. Advise her to reduce partying without discussing lateness.
C. Discuss lateness and concerns.
D. Report her directly to the Medical Board.
E. Ignore the behavior as long as she is attentive in consultations.
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A 14-year-old girl who has been living alone presents with a positive urine pregnancy test. She states she was raped 6 months ago and wishes to terminate the pregnancy. What is the next appropriate step?

A. Refer her to a gynecologist.
B. Terminate the pregnancy.
C. Send her to a women's home.
D. Inform the police.
E. Inform child protection services.
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A 35-year-old woman who recently underwent laparoscopic appendicectomy and completed a 5-day course of cefotaxime presents with a 3-day history of diarrhea and a temperature of 39.5°C. Her vital signs are otherwise normal, and a digital rectal exam is normal. Examination reveals erythematous port sites. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Clostridium difficile infection
B. Anastomotic leak
C. Pelvic abscess
D. Surgical site infection
E. Intra-abdominal abscess
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A 7-year-old boy is brought to the GP by his parents due to poor performance at school. Teachers report that he is inattentive, easily distracted, and frequently interrupts others. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?

A. Methylphenidate
B. Atomoxetine
C. Observation
D. Behavioral therapy
E. Clonidine
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A 25-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 2-week history of fatigue, sore throat, and swollen glands. She also reports a low-grade fever and mild headache. On examination, she has cervical lymphadenopathy and mild splenomegaly. A monospot test is positive. What is the most appropriate advice regarding her physical activity?

A. Engage in light exercise to improve symptoms
B. Resume normal activities immediately
C. Start a course of corticosteroids to reduce symptoms
D. Avoid all physical activity for 6 months
E. Avoid contact sports for at least 4 weeks
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A 24-year-old lady presents with worsening right eye 'ache' and reduced vision. The symptoms worsen with eye movements, and there is no redness or fluorescein uptake. Her vision is 6/12 in the right eye and 6/6 in the left eye. There is a relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD) on examination. What associated disease could this indicate?

A. Neuromyelitis optica
B. Graves’ disease
C. Multiple sclerosis
D. Ischemic optic neuropathy
E. Sarcoidosis
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A 28-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a 2-week history of fatigue, joint pain, and a facial rash that worsens with sun exposure. She also reports hair loss and oral ulcers. On examination, she has a malar rash and mild swelling in her hands. Laboratory tests reveal a positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) test and elevated anti-double-stranded DNA antibodies. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
B. Dermatomyositis
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Psoriatic arthritis
E. Sjögren's syndrome
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29-year-old lady with postpartum hair loss, sparse hair, positive pull test, and normal scalp. Diagnosis?

A. Hypothyroidism
B. Alopecia areata
C. Tinea capitis
D. Telogen effluvium
E. Androgenic alopecia
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner six weeks postpartum with distressing obsessive thoughts about accidentally harming her newborn. She reports spending excessive time checking on the baby and cleaning the nursery, which interferes with her ability to rest and care for herself. She denies any intent to harm her child and feels ashamed of these thoughts. Her past medical history is unremarkable, and she has no history of psychiatric disorders. On examination, she appears anxious but is cooperative and oriented. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management strategy for her condition?

A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) with exposure and response prevention
B. Reassurance and monitoring without immediate intervention
C. Referral to a psychiatrist for further evaluation
D. Initiation of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) therapy
E. Prescribing benzodiazepines for immediate anxiety relief
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