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young adult

Practice targeted AMC-style multiple-choice questions on young adult.

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A 32-year-old male presents to his GP complaining of a new, intensely itchy rash on his wrists and ankles. On examination, there are multiple small, flat-topped, polygonal, violaceous papules. Some of the papules have fine white lines on their surface. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Lichen planus
B. Psoriasis
C. Tinea corporis
D. Contact dermatitis
E. Atopic dermatitis
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a 2-week history of fatigue, joint pain, and a facial rash that worsens with sun exposure. She also reports hair loss and oral ulcers. On examination, she has a malar rash and mild swelling of the small joints in her hands. Laboratory tests reveal a positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) and anti-double-stranded DNA antibodies. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Psoriatic arthritis
B. Dermatomyositis
C. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
D. Rheumatoid arthritis
E. Sjogren's syndrome
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A 40-year-old patient with PTSD is started on sertraline but develops sexual dysfunction as a side effect. What is the next step in management?

A. Add bupropion.
B. Switch to paroxetine.
C. Continue sertraline and monitor.
D. Discontinue sertraline.
E. Reduce the dose of sertraline.
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An 18-year-old teenage girl presents with a sudden change in behavior at a music festival, appearing confused and aggressive after consuming 5-6 vodkas, with uncertainty about illicit drug use. What is the most appropriate next step in her management in the Australian context?

A. Administer IV fluids to sober her up.
B. Leave the patient alone to cool off.
C. Calmly de-escalate in a quiet room and assess for underlying causes.
D. Restrain the patient physically until she calms down.
E. Immediately administer IV droperidol 10 mg.
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A 25-year-old Aboriginal man presents to a remote clinic with increasing shortness of breath on exertion and palpitations over the past month. He recalls having a sore throat as a child but no specific diagnosis. On examination, his pulse is 95 bpm, blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, respiratory rate 20 breaths/min. Auscultation reveals a pansystolic murmur loudest at the apex, radiating to the axilla. There are no signs of heart failure currently. Considering the likely diagnosis and the patient's background, which of the following is the most appropriate initial investigation?

A. D-dimer
B. Cardiac troponin
C. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
D. Chest X-ray
E. Echocardiogram
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of fever, malaise, and a painful, swollen left knee. She denies any recent trauma or travel history. She has no significant past medical history and is not on any medications. On examination, her temperature is 38.7°C, heart rate is 110 bpm, and blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg. The left knee is erythematous, warm, and tender with a moderate effusion, and she has limited range of motion due to pain. Laboratory tests reveal leukocytosis with a left shift. Blood cultures are pending. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Start empirical intravenous antibiotics
B. Arthrocentesis of the left knee
C. Administer oral NSAIDs
D. Refer to rheumatology for further evaluation
E. Order an MRI of the knee
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A 28-year-old woman with a mother diagnosed with colorectal cancer at 45 and a maternal uncle at 50 seeks advice. She is otherwise well. What is the most appropriate next step in her management?

A. Annual FIT testing.
B. Consider prophylactic colectomy.
C. Genetic counselling and testing.
D. Colonoscopy screening at 40.
E. Reassurance and review.
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PET-CT of a tuberculoma
Image by Annemie Snoeckx, Pieter Reyntiens, Damien Desbuquoit, Maarten J. Spinhoven, Paul E. Van Schil, Jan P. van Meerbeeck, Paul M. Parizel CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 30-year-old immigrant presents with chronic cough and night sweats. Sputum is negative for AFB. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Prescribe antitussives
B. Repeat sputum AFB
C. Start empiric antibiotics
D. Bronchoscopy with biopsy
E. Initiate isoniazid prophylaxis
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A 17-year-old teenage girl presents with menorrhagia and a family history of heavy periods and hysterectomy, suggestive of Von Willebrand Disease (VWD). Which statement about VWD is correct?

A. There are multiple VWD patterns; most are autosomal dominant (AD).
B. Treatment involves iron supplementation only.
C. It affects females more than males, with a ratio of approximately 2:1.
D. It is an X-linked recessive disorder.
E. Type 1 is the most severe form.
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A 25-year-old man with Crohn's disease presents with increased abdominal pain and frequent diarrhea. He is on azathioprine. Stool studies are negative for infection. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

A. Order a colonoscopy with biopsies
B. Start a course of corticosteroids
C. Initiate infliximab therapy
D. Increase the dose of azathioprine
E. Prescribe a trial of antibiotics
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A 23-year-old backpacker doing farm work presents with a low-grade fever for 4 days. Q fever is suspected. What is the most appropriate diagnostic method for acute Q fever in Australia?

A. Chest X-ray
B. Serology (IFA for Phase II antibodies)
C. Serum PCR for C. burnetii.
D. Rapid antigen test for C. burnetii.
E. Serial blood cultures
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A 7-year-old boy is brought to his GP by his parents, who are concerned about his behaviour at school and at home. They report that he has difficulty paying attention in class, often fidgets and squirms in his seat, and frequently interrupts others. At home, he struggles to follow instructions, loses things easily, and seems forgetful. The teacher has also noted that he has difficulty staying on task and often blurts out answers before the question is finished. The parents deny any history of significant medical illness or developmental delay. On examination, the boy appears energetic and talkative, but is cooperative with the assessment. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the evaluation of this child?

A. Referral to a paediatrician or child psychiatrist for a comprehensive ADHD assessment
B. Trial of a stimulant medication to assess response
C. Encouraging the parents to implement a strict reward system at home
D. Request for formal cognitive testing to rule out learning disabilities
E. Reassurance and advice to parents on behavioural management techniques
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Ileitis terminalis bei langjaehrigem Morbus Crohn 63W - CT und MRT - 001
Image by Hellerhoff CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 28-year-old male with Crohn's presents with increased abdominal pain, non-bloody diarrhea, and fatigue for 3 weeks. He denies fever. Exam shows mild RLQ tenderness. Labs show elevated CRP. Imaging is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A. Prescribe antibiotics for possible infectious colitis
B. Schedule a colonoscopy with biopsy
C. Start a course of oral corticosteroids
D. Initiate anti-TNF therapy
E. Increase mesalamine dose
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Ultrasonographic picture taken from a patient with left ureteral stone with hydronephrosis, created in Taiwan
Image by morning2k CC BY 2.5 · Source

A 35-year-old male presents with left flank pain and dysuria. An ultrasound is performed. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Discharge with analgesia and follow-up
B. Increase oral fluid intake and reassess in 24 hours
C. Refer for immediate nephrectomy
D. Non-contrast CT of the abdomen and pelvis
E. Administer intravenous antibiotics
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe right lower abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. She reports that the pain started suddenly a few hours ago and has been worsening. Her last menstrual period was two weeks ago. On examination, she has tenderness and guarding in the right lower quadrant. A pregnancy test is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Pelvic inflammatory disease
B. Renal colic
C. Ovarian torsion
D. Ectopic pregnancy
E. Acute appendicitis
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PET-CT of a tuberculoma
Image by Annemie Snoeckx, Pieter Reyntiens, Damien Desbuquoit, Maarten J. Spinhoven, Paul E. Van Schil, Jan P. van Meerbeeck, Paul M. Parizel CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 32-year-old male, recent immigrant from a high-TB prevalence country, presents with a persistent cough and night sweats for the past two months. He denies fever or weight loss. Physical examination is unremarkable except for mild, diffuse rhonchi on auscultation. Sputum cultures are pending. A PET-CT scan of the chest was performed, the axial view is shown. Given the clinical context and imaging findings, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Prescribe a course of broad-spectrum antibiotics for presumed bacterial pneumonia
B. Initiate a four-drug anti-tuberculosis regimen
C. Repeat the PET-CT scan in three months to assess for interval growth
D. Start a course of oral corticosteroids to reduce inflammation
E. Order a bronchoscopy with transbronchial biopsy
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A 25-year-old man presents with a painless testicular lump on the left side, described as a firm intratesticular mass. What is the likely diagnosis?

A. Spermatocele
B. Epididymitis
C. Testicular cancer
D. Hydrocele
E. Hydatid of Morgagni
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Ovarian Cyst
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 28-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain that started suddenly 2 days ago. Her periods are regular. She denies fever or vomiting. The shown CT was performed. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

A. Ruptured ovarian cyst
B. Ovarian torsion
C. Appendicitis
D. Pelvic inflammatory disease
E. Ectopic pregnancy
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 2-week history of polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. She has no significant past medical history. On examination, she appears dehydrated, and her blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg. Laboratory tests reveal a blood glucose level of 18 mmol/L and ketones in the urine. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
B. Diabetes insipidus
C. Hyperthyroidism
D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
E. Cushing's syndrome
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Ileitis terminalis bei langjaehrigem Morbus Crohn 63W - CT und MRT - 001
Image by Hellerhoff CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 28-year-old male with Crohn's presents with increased abdominal pain, non-bloody diarrhea, and fatigue for 3 weeks. He denies fever. Exam shows mild RLQ tenderness. Labs show elevated CRP. Imaging is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A. Prescribe a 5-ASA enema
B. Start a course of oral corticosteroids
C. Increase the dose of his current mesalamine
D. Order a stool culture to rule out infection
E. Initiate anti-TNF therapy
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A 35-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 3-month history of persistent cough, night sweats, and weight loss. He has a history of travel to Southeast Asia six months ago. On examination, he appears thin and has crackles in the upper zones of his lungs. A chest X-ray shows cavitary lesions in the right upper lobe. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Sarcoidosis
B. Pneumonia
C. Lung cancer
D. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
E. Pulmonary tuberculosis
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PET-CT of a tuberculoma
Image by Annemie Snoeckx, Pieter Reyntiens, Damien Desbuquoit, Maarten J. Spinhoven, Paul E. Van Schil, Jan P. van Meerbeeck, Paul M. Parizel CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 28-year-old male presents with a persistent cough and fatigue. A PET-CT scan was performed. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

A. Lung abscess
B. Pneumocystis pneumonia
C. Aspergilloma
D. Bronchogenic carcinoma
E. Tuberculoma
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Ovarian Cyst
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 28-year-old female presents to the ED with acute onset right lower quadrant pain. She reports nausea and vomiting. Her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago, and she denies any vaginal bleeding. She is hemodynamically stable. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed, with a relevant image shown. Considering the clinical presentation and the imaging findings, what is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Order a pelvic ultrasound
B. Administer intravenous fluids and observe for symptom resolution
C. Outpatient follow-up with repeat imaging in 6 weeks
D. Laparoscopic surgical exploration
E. Initiate broad-spectrum antibiotics
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of fever, chills, and a productive cough with greenish sputum. She has a history of asthma and is currently on inhaled corticosteroids. On examination, her temperature is 38.5°C, blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, heart rate is 110 bpm, and respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute. Auscultation of the chest reveals wheezing and crackles in the right lower lung field. A chest X-ray shows consolidation in the right lower lobe. What is the most appropriate initial antibiotic therapy for this patient, considering her asthma and current presentation?

A. Azithromycin
B. Amoxicillin-clavulanate
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Levofloxacin
E. Doxycycline
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A 30-year-old woman presents with fever, hemoptysis, and night sweats. A chest X-ray shows a round lesion with an air-fluid level. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Tuberculosis
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Bronchiectasis
D. Lung cancer
E. Lung abscess
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A 30-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe right lower quadrant abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. The pain started around the umbilicus and then localized to the right lower quadrant. On examination, he has tenderness and guarding in the right lower quadrant. His temperature is 38.3°C, heart rate is 100 bpm, and blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Diverticulitis
B. Acute appendicitis
C. Acute cholecystitis
D. Renal colic
E. Gastroenteritis
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A 25-year-old man and a 23-year-old woman, newlyweds, are planning a 3-week trip to South America. The woman is not on oral contraceptives and wants to conceive. They are concerned about Zika. What advice can you provide?

A. Start OCP now and avoid unprotected sex for 3 months post-trip.
B. No need to delay pregnancy; just use mosquito repellent.
C. The Zika vaccine is available and recommended.
D. Defer pregnancy for 2 weeks post-trip.
E. Defer pregnancy for 6 months post-trip.
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner complaining of a persistent, intensely itchy rash on her elbows, knees, and scalp for the past 6 months. She reports that the itching is worse at night and after hot showers. She has tried over-the-counter hydrocortisone cream without relief. On examination, the GP notes symmetrical, excoriated papules and plaques on the extensor surfaces of her elbows and knees, as well as some scaling on her scalp. The patient also mentions a history of recurrent mouth ulcers. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial investigation to confirm the suspected diagnosis?

A. Skin biopsy for histopathology and direct immunofluorescence
B. Allergy testing (skin prick or RAST) for common environmental allergens
C. Full blood count (FBC) and liver function tests (LFTs)
D. Potassium hydroxide (KOH) examination of skin scrapings
E. IgA anti-endomysial antibody (EMA) and IgA tissue transglutaminase (tTG) antibody testing
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A 25-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 2-week history of a painful, swollen right knee. He denies any trauma or recent travel. He has a history of psoriasis. On examination, the right knee is warm, swollen, and tender with a reduced range of motion. There are no other joint abnormalities. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Gout
B. Septic arthritis
C. Psoriatic arthritis
D. Reactive arthritis
E. Rheumatoid arthritis
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A 28-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 3-month history of amenorrhea. She reports occasional headaches and galactorrhea. She is not on any medications and has no significant past medical history. On examination, her vital signs are normal, and there are no visual field defects. A pregnancy test is negative. What is the most appropriate initial investigation?

A. MRI of the brain
B. Serum prolactin level
C. Thyroid function tests
D. FSH and LH levels
E. Pelvic ultrasound
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A 35-year-old woman with a family history of BRCA1-associated breast cancer is considering genetic testing. She is asymptomatic and has no personal history of cancer. What is the MOST appropriate initial step in her management?

A. Ordering a BRCA1/2 gene mutation analysis
B. Prescribing prophylactic tamoxifen
C. Suggesting prophylactic bilateral mastectomy
D. Recommending annual mammography starting at age 25
E. Referral to a clinical geneticist or genetic counselor for pre-test counseling and risk assessment
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A 22-year-old lady was wrongly given a B12 prescription for another patient. The error was noticed later at the pharmacy. What is the next step?

A. Notify the practice manager.
B. Report to AHPRA.
C. Apologize to the patient for the error.
D. Review practice procedures.
E. Document in patient notes.
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A 25-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 2-week history of abdominal pain and diarrhea. She reports that the pain is crampy and occurs mostly in the lower abdomen. She has also noticed some blood in her stool. She has no significant past medical history and is not on any medications. On examination, she has mild tenderness in the lower abdomen but no rebound tenderness or guarding. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Diverticulitis
B. Ulcerative colitis
C. Irritable bowel syndrome
D. Celiac disease
E. Gastroenteritis
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A 25-year-old man with schizophrenia is started on risperidone. After a few weeks, he develops gynecomastia and galactorrhea. What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

A. Hyperprolactinemia
B. Diabetes insipidus
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Cushing syndrome
E. Adrenal insufficiency
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A 30-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of fever, sore throat, and a diffuse rash. She recently started taking a new medication for her epilepsy. On examination, she is febrile at 38.2°C, with a heart rate of 100 bpm and blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg. The rash is erythematous and involves the trunk and extremities, with some areas of desquamation. Laboratory tests reveal leukocytosis with eosinophilia and elevated liver enzymes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Stevens-Johnson syndrome
B. Scarlet fever
C. Toxic shock syndrome
D. Kawasaki disease
E. Drug reaction with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms (DRESS) syndrome
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A 33-year-old lady has an HNPCC gene mutation and two sisters with bowel cancer. She reports no change in bowel habits. What is the best surveillance for bowel cancer in this patient?

A. Annual or biennial colonoscopy starting now; discuss aspirin.
B. Colonoscopy at age 40, then every 5 years.
C. Annual iFOBT starting now.
D. Refer to a bowel cancer specialist.
E. Immediate colonoscopy, 5-year repeat, 2-year iFOBT, aspirin at 50.
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a 3-month history of fatigue, joint pain, and a facial rash that worsens with sun exposure. She also reports hair loss and oral ulcers. On examination, she has a malar rash, mild synovitis in her hands, and no signs of organomegaly. Laboratory tests reveal anemia, leukopenia, and positive antinuclear antibodies (ANA) with a high titer. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

A. Hydroxychloroquine
B. Azathioprine
C. Methotrexate
D. Cyclophosphamide
E. Prednisone
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A 35-year-old healthcare worker has a positive tuberculin skin test (12mm induration) following a known occupational exposure. Her chest X-ray is clear, and she reports no symptoms. Which is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Initiate treatment for latent tuberculosis infection.
B. Order an Interferon-Gamma Release Assay (IGRA).
C. Reassure the patient and advise annual screening.
D. Repeat the tuberculin skin test in three months.
E. Start a four-drug regimen for active tuberculosis.
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Ileitis terminalis bei langjaehrigem Morbus Crohn 63W - CT und MRT - 001
Image by Hellerhoff CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 32-year-old male with a 10-year history of Crohn's disease presents with worsening abdominal pain and diarrhea despite being on maintenance infliximab. He denies fever or blood in his stool. Physical exam reveals mild tenderness in the right lower quadrant. The provided imaging was obtained. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Start a course of oral budesonide
B. Initiate treatment with vedolizumab
C. Perform a colonoscopy with biopsy
D. Prescribe a course of oral metronidazole and ciprofloxacin
E. Increase the dose of infliximab
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A 35-year-old patient with schizophrenia is on risperidone and develops QT prolongation on ECG. What is the next step?

A. Switch to clozapine.
B. Start a beta-blocker.
C. Discontinue risperidone.
D. Monitor ECG regularly.
E. Reduce the dose of risperidone.
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe right lower abdominal pain. She reports nausea and vomiting but denies fever or urinary symptoms. Her last menstrual period was two weeks ago, and she is sexually active. On examination, she has tenderness in the right lower quadrant with guarding. A pelvic ultrasound reveals a 5 cm right ovarian cyst with free fluid in the pelvis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Pelvic inflammatory disease
B. Ruptured ovarian cyst
C. Ovarian torsion
D. Ectopic pregnancy
E. Appendicitis
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A 35-year-old woman with a strong family history of breast cancer (mother and sister diagnosed before age 40) is concerned about her risk. What is the most appropriate genetic testing for this patient?

A. HER2/neu testing
B. KRAS mutation testing
C. p53 mutation testing
D. Estrogen receptor testing
E. BRCA1/BRCA2 mutation testing
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She is 8 weeks pregnant by last menstrual period. She reports no fever or chills. On examination, her blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg, heart rate is 110 bpm, and she appears pale and diaphoretic. Abdominal examination reveals tenderness in the lower quadrants without rebound tenderness or guarding. A pelvic examination shows a closed cervical os with moderate bleeding. A bedside transvaginal ultrasound reveals an empty uterus. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Administer methotrexate
B. Perform an exploratory laparotomy
C. Administer anti-D immunoglobulin
D. Observe and repeat ultrasound in 48 hours
E. Perform a dilation and curettage
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A 14-year-old girl who has been living alone presents with a positive urine pregnancy test. She states she was raped 6 months ago and wishes to terminate the pregnancy. What is the next appropriate step?

A. Refer her to a gynecologist.
B. Terminate the pregnancy.
C. Send her to a women's home.
D. Inform the police.
E. Inform child protection services.
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Ileitis terminalis bei langjaehrigem Morbus Crohn 63W - CT und MRT - 001
Image by Hellerhoff CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 28-year-old male with a history of Crohn's disease presents with increased abdominal pain and non-bloody diarrhea. He is currently on azathioprine. The provided imaging was obtained. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A. Prescribe a bowel preparation for colonoscopy
B. Increase azathioprine dose
C. Initiate vedolizumab
D. Perform flexible sigmoidoscopy
E. Start a course of oral corticosteroids
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A 35-year-old woman who recently underwent laparoscopic appendicectomy and completed a 5-day course of cefotaxime presents with a 3-day history of diarrhea and a temperature of 39.5°C. Her vital signs are otherwise normal, and a digital rectal exam is normal. Examination reveals erythematous port sites. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Clostridium difficile infection
B. Anastomotic leak
C. Pelvic abscess
D. Surgical site infection
E. Intra-abdominal abscess
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A 7-year-old boy is brought to the GP by his parents due to poor performance at school. Teachers report that he is inattentive, easily distracted, and frequently interrupts others. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?

A. Methylphenidate
B. Atomoxetine
C. Observation
D. Behavioral therapy
E. Clonidine
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A 24-year-old lady presents with worsening right eye 'ache' and reduced vision. The symptoms worsen with eye movements, and there is no redness or fluorescein uptake. Her vision is 6/12 in the right eye and 6/6 in the left eye. There is a relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD) on examination. What associated disease could this indicate?

A. Neuromyelitis optica
B. Graves’ disease
C. Multiple sclerosis
D. Ischemic optic neuropathy
E. Sarcoidosis
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29-year-old lady with postpartum hair loss, sparse hair, positive pull test, and normal scalp. Diagnosis?

A. Hypothyroidism
B. Alopecia areata
C. Tinea capitis
D. Telogen effluvium
E. Androgenic alopecia
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner six weeks postpartum with distressing obsessive thoughts about accidentally harming her newborn. She reports spending excessive time checking on the baby and cleaning the nursery, which interferes with her ability to rest and care for herself. She denies any intent to harm her child and feels ashamed of these thoughts. Her past medical history is unremarkable, and she has no history of psychiatric disorders. On examination, she appears anxious but is cooperative and oriented. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management strategy for her condition?

A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) with exposure and response prevention
B. Reassurance and monitoring without immediate intervention
C. Referral to a psychiatrist for further evaluation
D. Initiation of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) therapy
E. Prescribing benzodiazepines for immediate anxiety relief
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