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young adult

Practice targeted AMC-style multiple-choice questions on young adult.

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A 32-year-old male presents to his GP complaining of a new, intensely itchy rash on his wrists and ankles. On examination, there are multiple small, flat-topped, polygonal, violaceous papules. Some of the papules have fine white lines on their surface. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Lichen planus
B. Psoriasis
C. Tinea corporis
D. Contact dermatitis
E. Atopic dermatitis
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A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe testicular pain on the right side. He reports no trauma or previous episodes. On examination, the right testis is swollen, tender, and lies higher in the scrotum compared to the left. The cremasteric reflex is absent on the affected side. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Doppler ultrasound of the scrotum
B. Urgent surgical exploration
C. Analgesia and observation
D. Empirical antibiotics for epididymitis
E. Manual detorsion attempt
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 2-week history of a persistent cough and shortness of breath. She has no significant past medical history and is a non-smoker. On examination, she has bilateral wheezing and reduced breath sounds. A chest X-ray shows hyperinflation of the lungs. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
B. Asthma
C. Heart failure
D. Pneumonia
E. Pulmonary embolism
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a 2-week history of fatigue, joint pain, and a facial rash that worsens with sun exposure. She also reports hair loss and oral ulcers. On examination, she has a malar rash and mild swelling of the small joints in her hands. Laboratory tests reveal a positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) and anti-double-stranded DNA antibodies. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Psoriatic arthritis
B. Dermatomyositis
C. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
D. Rheumatoid arthritis
E. Sjogren's syndrome
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A 40-year-old patient with PTSD is started on sertraline but develops sexual dysfunction as a side effect. What is the next step in management?

A. Add bupropion.
B. Switch to paroxetine.
C. Continue sertraline and monitor.
D. Discontinue sertraline.
E. Reduce the dose of sertraline.
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An 18-year-old teenage girl presents with a sudden change in behavior at a music festival, appearing confused and aggressive after consuming 5-6 vodkas, with uncertainty about illicit drug use. What is the most appropriate next step in her management in the Australian context?

A. Administer IV fluids to sober her up.
B. Leave the patient alone to cool off.
C. Calmly de-escalate in a quiet room and assess for underlying causes.
D. Restrain the patient physically until she calms down.
E. Immediately administer IV droperidol 10 mg.
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of fever, malaise, and a painful, swollen left knee. She denies any recent trauma or travel history. She has no significant past medical history and is not on any medications. On examination, her temperature is 38.7°C, heart rate is 110 bpm, and blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg. The left knee is erythematous, warm, and tender with a moderate effusion, and she has limited range of motion due to pain. Laboratory tests reveal leukocytosis with a left shift. Blood cultures are pending. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Start empirical intravenous antibiotics
B. Arthrocentesis of the left knee
C. Administer oral NSAIDs
D. Refer to rheumatology for further evaluation
E. Order an MRI of the knee
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A 25-year-old gentleman presents with 3 days of rhinorrhea, fever, cough, and abdominal pain. On examination, his temperature is 39.6°C, he has reduced breath sounds, and an enlarged spleen. Which of the following causative pathogens, if identified, would require mandatory notification in Australia?

A. Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)
B. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
C. Adenovirus
D. Chlamydia psittaci
E. Parainfluenzae
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Ileitis terminalis bei langjaehrigem Morbus Crohn 63W - CT und MRT - 001
Image by Hellerhoff CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 28-year-old male with Crohn's presents with increased abdominal pain, non-bloody diarrhea, and fatigue for 3 weeks. He denies fever. Exam shows mild RLQ tenderness. Labs show elevated CRP. Imaging is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A. Prescribe antibiotics for possible infectious colitis
B. Schedule a colonoscopy with biopsy
C. Start a course of oral corticosteroids
D. Initiate anti-TNF therapy
E. Increase mesalamine dose
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A 28-year-old woman presents with a palpable lump in her left breast, noticed two weeks ago. It feels smooth, mobile, and non-tender. No family history of breast cancer. On examination, a 2cm, firm, mobile mass is noted. Considering Australian guidelines for a palpable breast lump in this age group, what is the most appropriate initial investigation?

A. MRI breast
B. Core biopsy
C. Mammography
D. Ultrasound scan
E. Fine needle aspiration cytology
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A 28-year-old woman presents with a palpable lump in her left breast, noticed two weeks ago. It is slightly tender, especially before her period. On examination, it is mobile, firm, and about 2 cm. No skin changes or nipple discharge. What is the most appropriate initial investigation?

A. Ultrasound of the breast
B. Observation and review in 3 months
C. MRI of the breast
D. Fine needle aspiration cytology (FNAC)
E. Mammography
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PET-CT of a tuberculoma
Image by Annemie Snoeckx, Pieter Reyntiens, Damien Desbuquoit, Maarten J. Spinhoven, Paul E. Van Schil, Jan P. van Meerbeeck, Paul M. Parizel CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 28-year-old female, recently emigrated from Southeast Asia, presents to her general practitioner with complaints of fatigue, a persistent low-grade fever (37.8°C), and a non-productive cough that has been present for approximately one month. She denies any significant past medical history and is not currently taking any medications. Physical examination reveals slightly diminished breath sounds in the upper right lobe, but is otherwise unremarkable. Initial blood work, including a complete blood count and comprehensive metabolic panel, are within normal limits. A chest X-ray revealed a suspicious lesion in the right upper lobe, prompting a PET-CT scan, an axial slice of which is shown. Given the patient's history, clinical presentation, and the findings on the PET-CT scan, which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in the diagnostic workup?

A. Prescribe a course of broad-spectrum antibiotics to cover community-acquired pneumonia.
B. Order a CT-guided needle biopsy of the lesion.
C. Start empiric treatment with isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol (HRZE).
D. Refer the patient to a pulmonologist for bronchoscopy with bronchoalveolar lavage.
E. Initiate sputum acid-fast bacilli (AFB) smears and cultures.
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Synchronous multiple small bowel intussusceptions in an adult with blue rubber bleb naevus syndrome. CT scan of abdomen showing i) multiple intussusceptions demonstrating doughnut signs (white arrows), intussusceptiens [A], intussusceptum [B], distended loop of small

bowel [C] and ii) haemangioma of right quadratus lumborum muscle (dark arrow).
Image by Lee C, Debnath D, Whitburn T, Farrugia M, Gonzalez F CC BY 2.0 · Source

A 35-year-old male with a history of multiple cutaneous vascular lesions presents with recurrent episodes of crampy abdominal pain and melena over the past month. His vital signs are stable. An abdominal CT scan is performed. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the provided image, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Obtain an urgent abdominal MRI for better soft tissue detail
B. Surgical consultation for potential exploration
C. Conservative management with IV fluids and observation
D. Urgent colonoscopy to assess the bowel lumen
E. Attempt hydrostatic reduction with barium enema
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A 25-year-old man presents with a painless testicular lump on the left side, described as a firm intratesticular mass. What is the likely diagnosis?

A. Spermatocele
B. Epididymitis
C. Testicular cancer
D. Hydrocele
E. Hydatid of Morgagni
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Facial eosinophilic granuloma. Red-brown nodule on the nose. Clearly visible follicular structures ("peau d'orange").
Image by Sand, Michael, et al. CC BY 2.0 · Source

A 35-year-old male presents to his general practitioner with a lesion on his nose that has been present for approximately 3 months. He initially thought it was a persistent pimple but it has not resolved and seems to be slowly growing. He denies pain, itching, or bleeding from the lesion. He has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medications. He works outdoors but reports using sunscreen inconsistently. On examination, vital signs are stable. The lesion is as shown in the image. There are no other skin lesions noted elsewhere. Regional lymph nodes are not palpable. Based on the appearance of the lesion shown, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Reassure the patient and arrange for review in 3 months.
B. Prescribe a course of topical corticosteroid cream.
C. Initiate a course of oral antibiotics.
D. Arrange for cryotherapy to the lesion.
E. Perform a biopsy of the lesion for histological examination.
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Ovarian Cyst
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 28-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain that started suddenly 2 days ago. Her periods are regular. She denies fever or vomiting. The shown CT was performed. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

A. Ruptured ovarian cyst
B. Ovarian torsion
C. Appendicitis
D. Pelvic inflammatory disease
E. Ectopic pregnancy
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A 35-year-old lady who underwent laparoscopic appendicectomy presents 3 days later with diarrhea, fever (39.5°C), and erythematous port sites. She had a 5-day course of cefotaxime. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Pelvic abscess
B. Post-operative enteritis
C. Intra-abdominal abscess
D. Clostridium difficile infection
E. Surgical site infection
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A 28-year-old patient with PTSD is undergoing therapy. The therapist uses exposure techniques to help the patient confront traumatic memories. What type of therapy is this?

A. Psychodynamic therapy
B. Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT)
C. Supportive therapy
D. Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT)
E. Eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR)
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PET-CT of a tuberculoma
Image by Annemie Snoeckx, Pieter Reyntiens, Damien Desbuquoit, Maarten J. Spinhoven, Paul E. Van Schil, Jan P. van Meerbeeck, Paul M. Parizel CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 28-year-old female presents with a chronic cough and fatigue. She has no significant past medical history. A chest PET-CT was performed as part of her workup. The axial view is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management, considering the image and her presentation?

A. Bronchoscopy with biopsy
B. Referral for surgical resection
C. Initiate a trial of inhaled corticosteroids
D. Empiric antibiotics for community-acquired pneumonia
E. Repeat PET-CT in 3 months
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A 25-year-old woman with a history of sexual assault presents with intrusive thoughts, avoidance behaviors, and emotional numbness. She is diagnosed with PTSD. What is the first-line pharmacological treatment for this condition?

A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
B. Benzodiazepines
C. Beta-blockers
D. Mood stabilizers
E. Antipsychotics
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 2-week history of polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. She has no significant past medical history. On examination, she appears dehydrated, and her blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg. Laboratory tests reveal a blood glucose level of 18 mmol/L and ketones in the urine. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
B. Diabetes insipidus
C. Hyperthyroidism
D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
E. Cushing's syndrome
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A 25-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 3-day history of dysuria, increased urinary frequency, and urgency. She denies fever, flank pain, or vaginal discharge. She is sexually active and uses oral contraceptives. On examination, she is afebrile and her vital signs are stable. Urinalysis shows pyuria and bacteriuria. What is the most appropriate treatment?

A. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Ceftriaxone
D. Amoxicillin
E. Nitrofurantoin
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PET-CT of a tuberculoma
Image by Annemie Snoeckx, Pieter Reyntiens, Damien Desbuquoit, Maarten J. Spinhoven, Paul E. Van Schil, Jan P. van Meerbeeck, Paul M. Parizel CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 28-year-old immunocompetent patient presents with a chronic cough and low-grade fever. Initial investigations, including sputum microscopy, are negative. A PET-CT scan was performed (image shown). What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A. Bronchoscopy with biopsy
B. Empiric antibiotic therapy
C. Referral for surgical resection
D. Repeat sputum cultures
E. Initiate anti-tuberculosis therapy
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Ileitis terminalis bei langjaehrigem Morbus Crohn 63W - CT und MRT - 001
Image by Hellerhoff CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 32-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of worsening abdominal pain, primarily localized to the right lower quadrant. He reports associated nausea and decreased appetite but denies vomiting or diarrhea. His past medical history is significant for Crohn's disease, diagnosed 8 years ago, managed with intermittent courses of oral corticosteroids and azathioprine. He admits to poor adherence to his azathioprine regimen over the past year. On examination, he is afebrile with a heart rate of 92 bpm, blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg, and oxygen saturation of 98% on room air. Abdominal examination reveals tenderness to palpation in the right lower quadrant with guarding. Bowel sounds are normoactive. Laboratory investigations reveal a white blood cell count of 11,500/µL with neutrophilia, a C-reactive protein (CRP) of 45 mg/L, and normal liver function tests. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis with IV contrast is performed, the relevant images of which are shown. Given the patient's presentation and imaging findings, which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Prescribe a 6-week course of oral prednisone and monitor symptoms closely.
B. Order a colonoscopy with biopsy to assess for dysplasia.
C. Initiate intravenous corticosteroids and antibiotics, and consult general surgery for possible bowel resection.
D. Start infliximab infusion and schedule a follow-up appointment with gastroenterology in 4 weeks.
E. Discharge the patient with pain medication and instructions to follow up with their gastroenterologist in 1 week.
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PET-CT of a tuberculoma
Image by Annemie Snoeckx, Pieter Reyntiens, Damien Desbuquoit, Maarten J. Spinhoven, Paul E. Van Schil, Jan P. van Meerbeeck, Paul M. Parizel CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 28-year-old male presents with a persistent cough and fatigue. A PET-CT scan was performed. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

A. Lung abscess
B. Pneumocystis pneumonia
C. Aspergilloma
D. Bronchogenic carcinoma
E. Tuberculoma
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Ovarian Cyst
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 28-year-old female presents to the ED with acute onset right lower quadrant pain. She reports nausea and vomiting. Her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago, and she denies any vaginal bleeding. She is hemodynamically stable. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed, with a relevant image shown. Considering the clinical presentation and the imaging findings, what is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Order a pelvic ultrasound
B. Administer intravenous fluids and observe for symptom resolution
C. Outpatient follow-up with repeat imaging in 6 weeks
D. Laparoscopic surgical exploration
E. Initiate broad-spectrum antibiotics
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A 30-year-old veteran presents with recurrent nightmares, flashbacks of combat, and hypervigilance. He avoids crowded places and has difficulty sleeping. His symptoms have persisted for over 6 months and are affecting his daily functioning. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Major depressive disorder
B. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
C. Generalized anxiety disorder
D. Schizophrenia
E. Bipolar disorder
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A 25-year-old man and a 23-year-old woman, newlyweds, are planning a 3-week trip to South America. The woman is not on oral contraceptives and wants to conceive. They are concerned about Zika. What advice can you provide?

A. Start OCP now and avoid unprotected sex for 3 months post-trip.
B. No need to delay pregnancy; just use mosquito repellent.
C. The Zika vaccine is available and recommended.
D. Defer pregnancy for 2 weeks post-trip.
E. Defer pregnancy for 6 months post-trip.
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner complaining of a persistent, intensely itchy rash on her elbows, knees, and scalp for the past 6 months. She reports that the itching is worse at night and after hot showers. She has tried over-the-counter hydrocortisone cream without relief. On examination, the GP notes symmetrical, excoriated papules and plaques on the extensor surfaces of her elbows and knees, as well as some scaling on her scalp. The patient also mentions a history of recurrent mouth ulcers. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial investigation to confirm the suspected diagnosis?

A. Skin biopsy for histopathology and direct immunofluorescence
B. Allergy testing (skin prick or RAST) for common environmental allergens
C. Full blood count (FBC) and liver function tests (LFTs)
D. Potassium hydroxide (KOH) examination of skin scrapings
E. IgA anti-endomysial antibody (EMA) and IgA tissue transglutaminase (tTG) antibody testing
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Ileitis terminalis bei langjaehrigem Morbus Crohn 63W - CT und MRT - 001
Image by Hellerhoff CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 28-year-old with Crohn's presents with new fever and abdominal pain. The patient's CRP is elevated. Review the imaging. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A. Surgical consultation
B. Initiate a course of corticosteroids
C. Increase current infliximab dose
D. Repeat imaging in 6 weeks
E. Start oral metronidazole and ciprofloxacin
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A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP with worsening shortness of breath, cough, and wheeze over 2 days, requiring her salbutamol reliever daily and waking her at night. Her PEF is 60% of her personal best. She is alert, speaking in sentences, RR 22, HR 95. Based on Australian guidelines, what is the most appropriate initial management step?

A. Prescribe a course of oral prednisolone.
B. Order a chest X-ray to rule out pneumonia.
C. Increase the dose of her regular inhaled corticosteroid.
D. Arrange immediate transfer to the nearest emergency department.
E. Administer inhaled salbutamol via spacer and reassess clinical status and PEF.
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A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain that started around his umbilicus and has now localized to the right lower quadrant. He has nausea and has vomited twice. On examination, he has tenderness and guarding in the right lower quadrant. His temperature is 37.8°C, and his white blood cell count is elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Diverticulitis
B. Renal colic
C. Cholecystitis
D. Gastroenteritis
E. Acute appendicitis
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 3-day history of fever, sore throat, and difficulty swallowing. She has no significant past medical history and is not on any medications. On examination, she has swollen, tender anterior cervical lymph nodes and erythematous tonsils with white exudates. A rapid antigen detection test for group A Streptococcus is positive. What is the most appropriate treatment for her condition?

A. Azithromycin
B. Clindamycin
C. Penicillin V
D. Ceftriaxone
E. Amoxicillin
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A 35-year-old woman with a family history of BRCA1-associated breast cancer is considering genetic testing. She is asymptomatic and has no personal history of cancer. What is the MOST appropriate initial step in her management?

A. Ordering a BRCA1/2 gene mutation analysis
B. Prescribing prophylactic tamoxifen
C. Suggesting prophylactic bilateral mastectomy
D. Recommending annual mammography starting at age 25
E. Referral to a clinical geneticist or genetic counselor for pre-test counseling and risk assessment
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A 25-year-old man presents with a history of recurrent urinary tract calculi. Which of the following is most likely to help him reduce the recurrent rate of calculi?

A. Calcium chloride
B. Potassium citrate
C. Allopurinol
D. Cranberry juice
E. Increased dietary calcium intake
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe right lower abdominal pain. She reports nausea but no vomiting. Her last menstrual period was two weeks ago, and she is not sexually active. On examination, she has tenderness in the right lower quadrant with guarding. Her vital signs are stable. A pelvic ultrasound shows a 5 cm cyst on the right ovary with free fluid in the pelvis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Ovarian torsion
B. Ectopic pregnancy
C. Ruptured ovarian cyst
D. Pelvic inflammatory disease
E. Appendicitis
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 2-week history of palpitations, anxiety, and weight loss despite an increased appetite. She also reports feeling hot and experiencing increased sweating. On examination, she has a fine tremor, warm moist skin, and a diffusely enlarged thyroid gland. Her heart rate is 110 bpm. Blood tests reveal suppressed TSH and elevated free T4. What is the most appropriate initial treatment for her condition?

A. Prescribe levothyroxine
B. Refer for radioactive iodine therapy
C. Start propranolol
D. Initiate methimazole
E. Schedule thyroidectomy
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A 30-year-old woman with bipolar disorder is prescribed risperidone for manic episodes. She develops tremors and rigidity. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
C. Tardive dyskinesia
D. Serotonin syndrome
E. Akathisia
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A 28-year-old male with Crohn's disease presents with increased abdominal pain, fever, and bloody stools. He is on azathioprine. What is the most appropriate next step?

A. Prescribe a high-fibre diet.
B. Start a course of oral metronidazole.
C. Increase the dose of azathioprine.
D. Order a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis.
E. Reassure the patient and schedule a follow-up appointment.
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A 20-year-old female medical student arrives late, parties, and is attentive in consultations. What is the next step?

A. Discuss lateness and concerns.
B. Ignore the behavior as she is attentive in consultations.
C. Refer her for mandatory counseling.
D. Advise her to reduce partying.
E. Notify the university regarding suspected alcohol use during placement.
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a 3-month history of fatigue, joint pain, and a facial rash that worsens with sun exposure. She also reports hair loss and oral ulcers. On examination, she has a malar rash, mild synovitis in her hands, and no signs of organomegaly. Laboratory tests reveal anemia, leukopenia, and positive antinuclear antibodies (ANA) with a high titer. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

A. Hydroxychloroquine
B. Azathioprine
C. Methotrexate
D. Cyclophosphamide
E. Prednisone
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A 30-year-old woman presents to her GP with fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance over the past 6 months. She also reports constipation and dry skin. On examination, she has a slightly enlarged, non-tender thyroid gland. Her TSH level is elevated, and free T4 is low. What is the most appropriate treatment for this condition?

A. Radioactive iodine therapy
B. Levothyroxine
C. Methimazole
D. Beta-blockers
E. Thyroidectomy
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Ileitis terminalis bei langjaehrigem Morbus Crohn 63W - CT und MRT - 001
Image by Hellerhoff CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 32-year-old male with a 10-year history of Crohn's disease presents with worsening abdominal pain and diarrhea despite being on maintenance infliximab. He denies fever or blood in his stool. Physical exam reveals mild tenderness in the right lower quadrant. The provided imaging was obtained. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Start a course of oral budesonide
B. Initiate treatment with vedolizumab
C. Perform a colonoscopy with biopsy
D. Prescribe a course of oral metronidazole and ciprofloxacin
E. Increase the dose of infliximab
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Ovarian Cyst
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 28-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain that started suddenly 2 days ago. Her periods are irregular. She denies fever or vomiting. The shown CT was performed. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

A. Tubo-ovarian abscess
B. Ovarian torsion
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Hemorrhagic ovarian cyst
E. Appendicitis
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A 20-year-old female medical student arrives late, parties, but is attentive in consultations. What is the next step?

A. Notify the university regarding suspected alcohol use during placement.
B. Advise her to reduce partying without discussing lateness.
C. Discuss lateness and concerns.
D. Report her directly to the Medical Board.
E. Ignore the behavior as long as she is attentive in consultations.
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of fever, headache, and a rash that started on her wrists and ankles and has now spread to her trunk. She recently returned from a camping trip in the Northern Territory. On examination, she is febrile at 38.5°C, with a heart rate of 110 bpm and blood pressure of 100/70 mmHg. The rash is maculopapular and blanching. Laboratory tests reveal thrombocytopenia and elevated liver enzymes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Systemic lupus erythematosus
B. Drug reaction
C. Rickettsial infection
D. Viral exanthem
E. Meningococcal infection
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe right lower quadrant abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. She reports her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago. On examination, she has tenderness and guarding in the right lower quadrant. A urine pregnancy test is positive. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Prescribe analgesics and discharge
B. Schedule an exploratory laparotomy
C. Perform a transvaginal ultrasound
D. Administer methotrexate
E. Order a CT scan of the abdomen
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A 25-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 2-week history of fatigue, sore throat, and swollen glands. She also reports a low-grade fever and mild headache. On examination, she has cervical lymphadenopathy and mild splenomegaly. A monospot test is positive. What is the most appropriate advice regarding her physical activity?

A. Engage in light exercise to improve symptoms
B. Resume normal activities immediately
C. Start a course of corticosteroids to reduce symptoms
D. Avoid all physical activity for 6 months
E. Avoid contact sports for at least 4 weeks
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A 24-year-old lady presents with worsening right eye 'ache' and reduced vision. The symptoms worsen with eye movements, and there is no redness or fluorescein uptake. Her vision is 6/12 in the right eye and 6/6 in the left eye. There is a relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD) on examination. What associated disease could this indicate?

A. Neuromyelitis optica
B. Graves’ disease
C. Multiple sclerosis
D. Ischemic optic neuropathy
E. Sarcoidosis
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A 32-year-old male presents to his general practitioner with persistent anal pain and bleeding on defecation for the past 8 months. He reports a cycle of pain, relief after bowel movements, followed by throbbing pain lasting several hours. Examination reveals a visible anal fissure at the 6 o'clock position, along with a skin tag. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management, according to Australian guidelines?

A. Topical glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) ointment and stool softeners
B. Fibre supplementation and sitz baths
C. Botulinum toxin injection into the internal anal sphincter
D. Excision of the fissure and skin tag with advancement flap
E. Lateral internal sphincterotomy
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