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young adult

Practice targeted AMC-style multiple-choice questions on young adult.

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PET-CT of a tuberculoma
Image by Annemie Snoeckx, Pieter Reyntiens, Damien Desbuquoit, Maarten J. Spinhoven, Paul E. Van Schil, Jan P. van Meerbeeck, Paul M. Parizel CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 28-year-old female presents with a chronic cough and fatigue. She has no significant past medical history but reports recent travel to Southeast Asia. A chest PET-CT was performed. What is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Order a bronchoscopy with biopsy
B. Start a trial of inhaled corticosteroids
C. Repeat the PET-CT scan in 3 months
D. Initiate anti-tuberculosis therapy
E. Prescribe a course of broad-spectrum antibiotics
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A 28-year-old male presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain, fever, and bloody diarrhea for the past 2 days. He has a known history of Crohn's disease, diagnosed 5 years ago, and has been managed with azathioprine. He admits to inconsistent adherence to his medication regimen over the past year due to feeling well. On examination, he is febrile (38.9°C), tachycardic (110 bpm), and hypotensive (90/60 mmHg). His abdomen is distended and tender to palpation, particularly in the lower quadrants, with guarding. Laboratory investigations reveal a white blood cell count of 18,000/mm³ with a left shift, hemoglobin of 10 g/dL, platelets of 450,000/mm³, albumin of 28 g/L, and C-reactive protein (CRP) of 150 mg/L. An abdominal X-ray shows dilated loops of bowel. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Perform a colonoscopy to assess the extent of the inflammation and obtain biopsies
B. Administer intravenous corticosteroids and anti-diarrheal medications
C. Increase the dose of azathioprine and monitor the patient's symptoms
D. Intravenous fluids, broad-spectrum antibiotics, and urgent surgical consultation
E. Start infliximab infusion immediately after blood cultures are taken
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Ileitis terminalis bei langjaehrigem Morbus Crohn 63W - CT und MRT - 001
Image by Hellerhoff CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 32-year-old male with Crohn's disease presents with worsening abdominal pain and diarrhea despite being on maintenance infliximab. The provided imaging was obtained. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Increase the dose of infliximab
B. Start a course of oral corticosteroids
C. Perform a colonoscopy with biopsy
D. Surgical resection of the affected bowel segment
E. Initiate treatment with metronidazole and ciprofloxacin
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A 40-year-old patient with PTSD is started on sertraline but develops sexual dysfunction as a side effect. What is the next step in management?

A. Add bupropion.
B. Switch to paroxetine.
C. Continue sertraline and monitor.
D. Discontinue sertraline.
E. Reduce the dose of sertraline.
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A 28-year-old man presents to his general practitioner for a routine health check. He reports being in a non-monogamous relationship for the past year. He states he uses condoms inconsistently, particularly within the primary relationship where his partner's HIV status is unknown. He denies any recent febrile illness, rash, or lymphadenopathy. His last HIV test, performed 6 months ago, was negative. He has no other significant medical history. Considering his presentation and reported risk factors, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in his management according to Australian guidelines?

A. Order a comprehensive panel of sexually transmitted infection tests, excluding HIV, and review results.
B. Advise strict and consistent condom use for all sexual encounters.
C. Schedule a repeat HIV test in 6 months as part of routine screening.
D. Prescribe a course of post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) immediately.
E. Discuss and offer HIV pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) after confirming negative HIV status.
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A 25-year-old Aboriginal man presents to a remote clinic with increasing shortness of breath on exertion and palpitations over the past month. He recalls having a sore throat as a child but no specific diagnosis. On examination, his pulse is 95 bpm, blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, respiratory rate 20 breaths/min. Auscultation reveals a pansystolic murmur loudest at the apex, radiating to the axilla. There are no signs of heart failure currently. Considering the likely diagnosis and the patient's background, which of the following is the most appropriate initial investigation?

A. D-dimer
B. Cardiac troponin
C. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
D. Chest X-ray
E. Echocardiogram
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A 28-year-old woman with a mother diagnosed with colorectal cancer at 45 and a maternal uncle at 50 seeks advice. She is otherwise well. What is the most appropriate next step in her management?

A. Annual FIT testing.
B. Consider prophylactic colectomy.
C. Genetic counselling and testing.
D. Colonoscopy screening at 40.
E. Reassurance and review.
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A 17-year-old teenage girl presents with menorrhagia and a family history of heavy periods and hysterectomy, suggestive of Von Willebrand Disease (VWD). Which statement about VWD is correct?

A. There are multiple VWD patterns; most are autosomal dominant (AD).
B. Treatment involves iron supplementation only.
C. It affects females more than males, with a ratio of approximately 2:1.
D. It is an X-linked recessive disorder.
E. Type 1 is the most severe form.
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A 22-year-old female presents with a strange tongue appearance after brushing her teeth, with no pain. She has a history of pustular psoriasis. What is the next step?

A. Reassure - no treatment needed.
B. Prescribe oral antifungal.
C. Daily AB mouthwash until the tongue is normal.
D. Biopsy of tongue lesion.
E. Refer to a dermatologist.
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A 23-year-old backpacker doing farm work presents with a low-grade fever for 4 days. Q fever is suspected. What is the most appropriate diagnostic method for acute Q fever in Australia?

A. Chest X-ray
B. Serology (IFA for Phase II antibodies)
C. Serum PCR for C. burnetii.
D. Rapid antigen test for C. burnetii.
E. Serial blood cultures
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A 25-year-old gentleman presents with 3 days of rhinorrhea, fever, cough, and abdominal pain. On examination, his temperature is 39.6°C, he has reduced breath sounds, and an enlarged spleen. Which of the following causative pathogens, if identified, would require mandatory notification in Australia?

A. Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)
B. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
C. Adenovirus
D. Chlamydia psittaci
E. Parainfluenzae
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner complaining of a persistent, intensely itchy rash that started a few weeks ago. She reports that it began on her wrists and ankles and has now spread to her elbows and knees. She denies any new medications, travel, or changes in personal care products. On examination, you observe symmetrical, excoriated papules and plaques on her wrists, elbows, knees, and upper back. Some of the papules have small blisters. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial investigation?

A. Patch testing with a standard allergen series
B. Potassium hydroxide (KOH) examination of skin scraping
C. Serum IgE level
D. Skin biopsy for direct immunofluorescence
E. Viral culture of blister fluid
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A 31-year-old man presents with gradual onset lateral knee pain that worsens with running and has no history of trauma. The pain is localized above the joint line, and there is no swelling. What is the likely diagnosis?

A. Patellofemoral pain syndrome
B. Quadriceps tendon tear
C. Lateral collateral ligament sprain
D. Iliotibial band syndrome
E. Lateral meniscus tear
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Synchronous multiple small bowel intussusceptions in an adult with blue rubber bleb naevus syndrome. CT scan of abdomen showing i) multiple intussusceptions demonstrating doughnut signs (white arrows), intussusceptiens [A], intussusceptum [B], distended loop of small

bowel [C] and ii) haemangioma of right quadratus lumborum muscle (dark arrow).
Image by Lee C, Debnath D, Whitburn T, Farrugia M, Gonzalez F CC BY 2.0 · Source

A 35-year-old male with a history of multiple cutaneous vascular lesions presents with recurrent episodes of crampy abdominal pain and melena over the past month. His vital signs are stable. An abdominal CT scan is performed. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the provided image, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Obtain an urgent abdominal MRI for better soft tissue detail
B. Surgical consultation for potential exploration
C. Conservative management with IV fluids and observation
D. Urgent colonoscopy to assess the bowel lumen
E. Attempt hydrostatic reduction with barium enema
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a 3-month history of intermittent abdominal pain and bloating. She reports that the pain is crampy, occurs mainly in the lower abdomen, and is often relieved by defecation. She also notes a change in her bowel habits, alternating between constipation and diarrhea. She denies any weight loss, fever, or blood in her stool. Her medical history is unremarkable, and she is not on any medications. On examination, her abdomen is soft with mild tenderness in the lower quadrants but no palpable masses. Blood tests, including a complete blood count and C-reactive protein, are normal. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Colonoscopy
B. Reassurance and dietary modification
C. Stool culture
D. Lactose hydrogen breath test
E. Abdominal CT scan
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A 24-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of fever, sore throat, and fatigue. She also reports a rash that developed after taking amoxicillin prescribed by her GP for a presumed bacterial throat infection. On examination, she has cervical lymphadenopathy, a diffuse maculopapular rash, and mild splenomegaly. Her vital signs are stable. A monospot test is positive. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the rash?

A. Scarlet fever
B. Allergic reaction to amoxicillin
C. Amoxicillin-induced rash in the context of infectious mononucleosis
D. Drug-induced lupus erythematosus
E. Stevens-Johnson syndrome
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A 35-year-old lady who underwent laparoscopic appendicectomy presents 3 days later with diarrhea, fever (39.5°C), and erythematous port sites. She had a 5-day course of cefotaxime. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Pelvic abscess
B. Post-operative enteritis
C. Intra-abdominal abscess
D. Clostridium difficile infection
E. Surgical site infection
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A 28-year-old patient with autism spectrum disorder is prescribed risperidone for aggressive behavior. His parents report significant weight gain. What is the most appropriate next step?

A. Monitor and continue risperidone.
B. Add metformin.
C. Start a low-calorie diet.
D. Switch to aripiprazole.
E. Discontinue risperidone.
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A 25-year-old woman with a history of sexual assault presents with intrusive thoughts, avoidance behaviors, and emotional numbness. She is diagnosed with PTSD. What is the first-line pharmacological treatment for this condition?

A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
B. Benzodiazepines
C. Beta-blockers
D. Mood stabilizers
E. Antipsychotics
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 2-week history of polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. She has no significant past medical history. On examination, she appears dehydrated, and her blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg. Laboratory tests reveal a blood glucose level of 18 mmol/L and ketones in the urine. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
B. Diabetes insipidus
C. Hyperthyroidism
D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
E. Cushing's syndrome
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A 25-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 3-day history of dysuria, increased urinary frequency, and urgency. She denies fever, flank pain, or vaginal discharge. She is sexually active and uses oral contraceptives. On examination, she is afebrile and her vital signs are stable. Urinalysis shows pyuria and bacteriuria. What is the most appropriate treatment?

A. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Ceftriaxone
D. Amoxicillin
E. Nitrofurantoin
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PET-CT of a tuberculoma
Image by Annemie Snoeckx, Pieter Reyntiens, Damien Desbuquoit, Maarten J. Spinhoven, Paul E. Van Schil, Jan P. van Meerbeeck, Paul M. Parizel CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 28-year-old immunocompetent patient presents with a chronic cough and low-grade fever. Initial investigations, including sputum microscopy, are negative. A PET-CT scan was performed (image shown). What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A. Bronchoscopy with biopsy
B. Empiric antibiotic therapy
C. Referral for surgical resection
D. Repeat sputum cultures
E. Initiate anti-tuberculosis therapy
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PET-CT of a tuberculoma
Image by Annemie Snoeckx, Pieter Reyntiens, Damien Desbuquoit, Maarten J. Spinhoven, Paul E. Van Schil, Jan P. van Meerbeeck, Paul M. Parizel CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 28-year-old male presents with a persistent cough and fatigue. A PET-CT scan was performed. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

A. Lung abscess
B. Pneumocystis pneumonia
C. Aspergilloma
D. Bronchogenic carcinoma
E. Tuberculoma
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Ovarian Cyst
Image by James Heilman, MD CC BY-SA 3.0 · Source

A 28-year-old female presents to the ED with acute onset right lower quadrant pain. She reports nausea and vomiting. Her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago, and she denies any vaginal bleeding. She is hemodynamically stable. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed, with a relevant image shown. Considering the clinical presentation and the imaging findings, what is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Order a pelvic ultrasound
B. Administer intravenous fluids and observe for symptom resolution
C. Outpatient follow-up with repeat imaging in 6 weeks
D. Laparoscopic surgical exploration
E. Initiate broad-spectrum antibiotics
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe headache, nausea, and photophobia. She has no significant past medical history and is not on any medications. On examination, she is alert but in distress due to the headache. Her vital signs are stable, and there is no neck stiffness. A CT scan of the head is performed and shows no abnormalities. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Consult neurology for further evaluation
B. Administer intravenous analgesics and observe
C. Order an MRI of the brain
D. Discharge with oral analgesics and follow-up
E. Perform a lumbar puncture
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of fever, chills, and a productive cough with greenish sputum. She has a history of asthma and is currently on inhaled corticosteroids. On examination, her temperature is 38.5°C, blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, heart rate is 110 bpm, and respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute. Auscultation of the chest reveals wheezing and crackles in the right lower lung field. A chest X-ray shows consolidation in the right lower lobe. What is the most appropriate initial antibiotic therapy for this patient, considering her asthma and current presentation?

A. Azithromycin
B. Amoxicillin-clavulanate
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Levofloxacin
E. Doxycycline
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A 28-year-old woman using a combined oral contraceptive pill is prescribed carbamazepine for newly diagnosed epilepsy. What is the most appropriate advice regarding her ongoing contraception?

A. Switch to a standard dose progestogen-only pill.
B. Stop the carbamazepine and consult her neurologist.
C. Switch to a non-hormonal method or depot medroxyprogesterone acetate.
D. Continue the combined pill and use condoms for 7 days.
E. Double the dose of her current combined oral contraceptive pill.
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A 30-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe right lower quadrant abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. The pain started around the umbilicus and then localized to the right lower quadrant. On examination, he has tenderness and guarding in the right lower quadrant. His temperature is 38.3°C, heart rate is 100 bpm, and blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Diverticulitis
B. Acute appendicitis
C. Acute cholecystitis
D. Renal colic
E. Gastroenteritis
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner complaining of a persistent, intensely itchy rash on her elbows, knees, and scalp for the past 6 months. She reports that the itching is worse at night and after hot showers. She has tried over-the-counter hydrocortisone cream without relief. On examination, the GP notes symmetrical, excoriated papules and plaques on the extensor surfaces of her elbows and knees, as well as some scaling on her scalp. The patient also mentions a history of recurrent mouth ulcers. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial investigation to confirm the suspected diagnosis?

A. Skin biopsy for histopathology and direct immunofluorescence
B. Allergy testing (skin prick or RAST) for common environmental allergens
C. Full blood count (FBC) and liver function tests (LFTs)
D. Potassium hydroxide (KOH) examination of skin scrapings
E. IgA anti-endomysial antibody (EMA) and IgA tissue transglutaminase (tTG) antibody testing
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Ileitis terminalis bei langjaehrigem Morbus Crohn 63W - CT und MRT - 001
Image by Hellerhoff CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 28-year-old with Crohn's presents with new fever and abdominal pain. The patient's CRP is elevated. Review the imaging. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A. Surgical consultation
B. Initiate a course of corticosteroids
C. Increase current infliximab dose
D. Repeat imaging in 6 weeks
E. Start oral metronidazole and ciprofloxacin
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A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP with worsening shortness of breath, cough, and wheeze over 2 days, requiring her salbutamol reliever daily and waking her at night. Her PEF is 60% of her personal best. She is alert, speaking in sentences, RR 22, HR 95. Based on Australian guidelines, what is the most appropriate initial management step?

A. Prescribe a course of oral prednisolone.
B. Order a chest X-ray to rule out pneumonia.
C. Increase the dose of her regular inhaled corticosteroid.
D. Arrange immediate transfer to the nearest emergency department.
E. Administer inhaled salbutamol via spacer and reassess clinical status and PEF.
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 3-day history of fever, sore throat, and difficulty swallowing. She has no significant past medical history and is not on any medications. On examination, she has swollen, tender anterior cervical lymph nodes and erythematous tonsils with white exudates. A rapid antigen detection test for group A Streptococcus is positive. What is the most appropriate treatment for her condition?

A. Azithromycin
B. Clindamycin
C. Penicillin V
D. Ceftriaxone
E. Amoxicillin
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A 16-year-old boy is diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes mellitus after presenting with polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. His blood tests show elevated blood glucose levels and the presence of autoantibodies against pancreatic beta cells. In contrast, a 55-year-old woman is diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes mellitus, characterized by insulin resistance and obesity. Which of the following best describes the pathophysiological differences between Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes?

A. Type 1 diabetes involves insulin resistance and obesity, whereas Type 2 diabetes is due to genetic mutations affecting insulin production.
B. Type 1 diabetes is caused by insulin resistance due to obesity, while Type 2 diabetes results from autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells.
C. Type 1 diabetes is characterized by insulin resistance, while Type 2 diabetes involves absolute insulin deficiency due to beta-cell destruction.
D. Both Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes are primarily caused by autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells.
E. Type 1 diabetes involves autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells, leading to absolute insulin deficiency, whereas Type 2 diabetes is characterized by insulin resistance and relative insulin deficiency.
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe right lower abdominal pain. She reports nausea but no vomiting. Her last menstrual period was two weeks ago, and she is not sexually active. On examination, she has tenderness in the right lower quadrant with guarding. Her vital signs are stable. A pelvic ultrasound shows a 5 cm cyst on the right ovary with free fluid in the pelvis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Ovarian torsion
B. Ectopic pregnancy
C. Ruptured ovarian cyst
D. Pelvic inflammatory disease
E. Appendicitis
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A 25-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 2-week history of abdominal pain and diarrhea. She reports that the pain is crampy and occurs mostly in the lower abdomen. She has also noticed some blood in her stool. She has no significant past medical history and is not on any medications. On examination, she has mild tenderness in the lower abdomen but no rebound tenderness or guarding. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Diverticulitis
B. Ulcerative colitis
C. Irritable bowel syndrome
D. Celiac disease
E. Gastroenteritis
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A 30-year-old woman with bipolar disorder is prescribed risperidone for manic episodes. She develops tremors and rigidity. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
C. Tardive dyskinesia
D. Serotonin syndrome
E. Akathisia
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A 33-year-old lady has an HNPCC gene mutation and two sisters with bowel cancer. She reports no change in bowel habits. What is the best surveillance for bowel cancer in this patient?

A. Annual or biennial colonoscopy starting now; discuss aspirin.
B. Colonoscopy at age 40, then every 5 years.
C. Annual iFOBT starting now.
D. Refer to a bowel cancer specialist.
E. Immediate colonoscopy, 5-year repeat, 2-year iFOBT, aspirin at 50.
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A 35-year-old healthcare worker has a positive tuberculin skin test (12mm induration) following a known occupational exposure. Her chest X-ray is clear, and she reports no symptoms. Which is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Initiate treatment for latent tuberculosis infection.
B. Order an Interferon-Gamma Release Assay (IGRA).
C. Reassure the patient and advise annual screening.
D. Repeat the tuberculin skin test in three months.
E. Start a four-drug regimen for active tuberculosis.
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Ileitis terminalis bei langjaehrigem Morbus Crohn 63W - CT und MRT - 001
Image by Hellerhoff CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 32-year-old male with a 10-year history of Crohn's disease presents with worsening abdominal pain and diarrhea despite being on maintenance infliximab. He denies fever or blood in his stool. Physical exam reveals mild tenderness in the right lower quadrant. The provided imaging was obtained. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Start a course of oral budesonide
B. Initiate treatment with vedolizumab
C. Perform a colonoscopy with biopsy
D. Prescribe a course of oral metronidazole and ciprofloxacin
E. Increase the dose of infliximab
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A 35-year-old patient with schizophrenia is on risperidone and develops QT prolongation on ECG. What is the next step?

A. Switch to clozapine.
B. Start a beta-blocker.
C. Discontinue risperidone.
D. Monitor ECG regularly.
E. Reduce the dose of risperidone.
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe right lower abdominal pain. She reports nausea and vomiting but denies fever or urinary symptoms. Her last menstrual period was two weeks ago, and she is sexually active. On examination, she has tenderness in the right lower quadrant with guarding. A pelvic ultrasound reveals a 5 cm right ovarian cyst with free fluid in the pelvis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Pelvic inflammatory disease
B. Ruptured ovarian cyst
C. Ovarian torsion
D. Ectopic pregnancy
E. Appendicitis
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She is 8 weeks pregnant by last menstrual period. She reports no fever or chills. On examination, her blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg, heart rate is 110 bpm, and she appears pale and diaphoretic. Abdominal examination reveals tenderness in the lower quadrants without rebound tenderness or guarding. A pelvic examination shows a closed cervical os with moderate bleeding. A bedside transvaginal ultrasound reveals an empty uterus. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Administer methotrexate
B. Perform an exploratory laparotomy
C. Administer anti-D immunoglobulin
D. Observe and repeat ultrasound in 48 hours
E. Perform a dilation and curettage
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Ileitis terminalis bei langjaehrigem Morbus Crohn 63W - CT und MRT - 001
Image by Hellerhoff CC BY-SA 4.0 · Source

A 32-year-old male with Crohn's disease presents with increased abdominal pain and diarrhea. Review the imaging. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A. Order a stool culture
B. Prescribe a course of antibiotics
C. Perform a colonoscopy with biopsy
D. Initiate corticosteroid therapy
E. Increase the dose of current TNF-alpha inhibitor
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A 20-year-old female medical student arrives late, parties, but is attentive in consultations. What is the next step?

A. Notify the university regarding suspected alcohol use during placement.
B. Advise her to reduce partying without discussing lateness.
C. Discuss lateness and concerns.
D. Report her directly to the Medical Board.
E. Ignore the behavior as long as she is attentive in consultations.
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of fever, headache, and a rash that started on her wrists and ankles and has now spread to her trunk. She recently returned from a camping trip in the Northern Territory. On examination, she is febrile at 38.5°C, with a heart rate of 110 bpm and blood pressure of 100/70 mmHg. The rash is maculopapular and blanching. Laboratory tests reveal thrombocytopenia and elevated liver enzymes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Systemic lupus erythematosus
B. Drug reaction
C. Rickettsial infection
D. Viral exanthem
E. Meningococcal infection
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe right lower quadrant abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. She reports her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago. On examination, she has tenderness and guarding in the right lower quadrant. A urine pregnancy test is positive. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Prescribe analgesics and discharge
B. Schedule an exploratory laparotomy
C. Perform a transvaginal ultrasound
D. Administer methotrexate
E. Order a CT scan of the abdomen
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a 2-month history of fatigue, weight gain, and feeling cold all the time. She also reports hair loss and constipation. On examination, her heart rate is 58 bpm, and she has dry skin and a delayed relaxation phase of the deep tendon reflexes. Her thyroid function tests reveal a high TSH level and low free T4. She has no significant past medical history and is not on any medications. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management for her condition?

A. Propranolol
B. Radioactive iodine therapy
C. Methimazole
D. Thyroidectomy
E. Levothyroxine
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A 28-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a 2-week history of fatigue, joint pain, and a facial rash that worsens with sun exposure. She also reports hair loss and oral ulcers. On examination, she has a malar rash and mild swelling in her hands. Laboratory tests reveal a positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) test and elevated anti-double-stranded DNA antibodies. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
B. Dermatomyositis
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Psoriatic arthritis
E. Sjögren's syndrome
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29-year-old lady with postpartum hair loss, sparse hair, positive pull test, and normal scalp. Diagnosis?

A. Hypothyroidism
B. Alopecia areata
C. Tinea capitis
D. Telogen effluvium
E. Androgenic alopecia
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner six weeks postpartum with distressing obsessive thoughts about accidentally harming her newborn. She reports spending excessive time checking on the baby and cleaning the nursery, which interferes with her ability to rest and care for herself. She denies any intent to harm her child and feels ashamed of these thoughts. Her past medical history is unremarkable, and she has no history of psychiatric disorders. On examination, she appears anxious but is cooperative and oriented. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management strategy for her condition?

A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) with exposure and response prevention
B. Reassurance and monitoring without immediate intervention
C. Referral to a psychiatrist for further evaluation
D. Initiation of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) therapy
E. Prescribing benzodiazepines for immediate anxiety relief
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