abdominal ultrasound

A 2-year-old child is brought to the GP by their parents who are concerned about the appearance of their child's abdomen. The child is asymptomatic, feeding well, and has no history of vomiting or pain. On examination, vital signs are normal. Considering the clinical presentation and the finding shown in the image, what is the most appropriate initial management?

A 64-year-old woman presents for an elective abdominal ultrasound. Several months ago, she experienced a few episodes of intermittent, moderate-to-severe right upper quadrant pain that resolved spontaneously within a few hours each time. She denies any associated fever, chills, nausea, vomiting, or jaundice during those episodes or currently. She has no significant past medical history other than well-controlled hypertension. On examination today, she is afebrile, her vital signs are stable, and her abdomen is soft and non-tender. Routine blood tests performed prior to the ultrasound, including full blood count, liver function tests (bilirubin, alkaline phosphatase, AST, ALT, GGT), amylase, and lipase, are all within their respective normal reference ranges. The provided image is a representative view obtained during her ultrasound examination. Considering the patient's history, current clinical status, and the findings demonstrated in the image, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 64-year-old woman presents for follow-up after experiencing intermittent episodes of right upper quadrant colicky pain over the past year, which have since resolved. She denies any current pain, fever, jaundice, or changes in bowel habits. Physical examination is unremarkable, and recent liver function tests are within normal limits. An elective abdominal ultrasound was performed, yielding the image shown. Considering the clinical context and the findings demonstrated, what is the most appropriate next step in her management?

A previously healthy 3-year-old boy presents with colicky abdominal pain and non-bilious vomiting. Physical exam reveals a palpable abdominal mass in the RUQ. An ultrasound is performed, revealing the finding shown. What is the MOST likely lead point?

A 3-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of intermittent, severe abdominal pain. His mother reports episodes where he cries inconsolably, draws his knees to his chest, and then seems to recover briefly before the pain returns. He has also passed a stool mixed with mucus and blood, described as 'red currant jelly'. On examination, the child is afebrile, but appears pale and lethargic. Abdominal palpation reveals a sausage-shaped mass in the right upper quadrant. An ultrasound is performed, and a representative image is shown. Assuming the diagnosis is confirmed, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 70-year-old male with cirrhosis secondary to alcohol abuse presents with new-onset ascites and a palpable liver mass. His AFP is markedly elevated. A contrast-enhanced ultrasound is performed, as shown. What is the MOST appropriate next diagnostic step?

A 3-year-old boy presents with intermittent abdominal pain, vomiting, and bloody stools. An ultrasound is performed, the image is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 64-year-old woman with a history of intermittent, self-resolving right upper quadrant pain presents for evaluation. She denies fever, chills, or jaundice, and her physical examination is unremarkable. Routine blood tests, including liver function tests and amylase, are within normal limits. An abdominal ultrasound was performed, and a representative image is shown. Based on the findings in this image and her clinical presentation, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 64-year-old woman presents for review in the outpatient clinic. She reports a history of intermittent, self-resolving episodes of right upper quadrant colicky pain over the past year, but is currently asymptomatic. She denies fever, jaundice, or other systemic symptoms. Her physical examination is unremarkable, and recent liver function tests are within the normal reference range. An elective abdominal ultrasound was performed, yielding the image shown. Based on the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated, what is the most appropriate next step in her management?

A 6-week-old male presents with projectile vomiting after feeds. He is otherwise well-appearing, with normal vital signs and no abdominal distension. An ultrasound was performed, and an image is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 5-week-old male presents with projectile vomiting. Ultrasound (shown). What electrolyte abnormality is MOST likely?

A 4-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with a 12-hour history of intermittent abdominal pain. His mother reports that the pain seems to come in waves, during which he cries and pulls his legs towards his chest. Between episodes, he appears relatively comfortable and plays normally. He has vomited once. His bowel movements have been normal, but his mother noticed a small streak of blood in his diaper this morning. On examination, the child is alert and playful. His abdomen is soft and non-tender to palpation. Bowel sounds are present. Given the history, the physician orders an abdominal ultrasound, the image is shown. What is the MOST likely underlying cause of this patient's condition?

A 55-year-old woman presents with 2 days of worsening right upper quadrant pain radiating to her back, nausea, and subjective fever. On examination, she is tender in the RUQ. Vitals are stable. Labs show WCC 15.0, CRP 120. This image is obtained. Given the clinical context and imaging findings, what is the most appropriate definitive management strategy?

A 3-year-old boy presents with intermittent abdominal pain and vomiting. Stool examination reveals a positive occult blood test. An ultrasound is performed, as shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 65-year-old male presents to the emergency department with 2 days of constant right upper quadrant pain radiating to the back, associated with nausea and subjective fever. On examination, he is febrile (38.5°C) with significant tenderness and a positive Murphy's sign in the right upper quadrant. His white cell count is elevated at 15 x 10^9/L, and CRP is 120 mg/L. Liver function tests are within normal limits. Considering the clinical findings and the provided imaging, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 72-year-old woman presents with 3 days of worsening right upper quadrant pain, nausea, and vomiting. She has a history of dyspepsia. On examination, she is afebrile (37.2°C), heart rate 95 bpm, blood pressure 130/80 mmHg. Abdominal examination reveals tenderness in the right upper quadrant without guarding or rebound. Bowel sounds are present. Her white cell count is 11 x 10^9/L, CRP 80 mg/L. Liver function tests are normal. The provided imaging was obtained. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the provided imaging, which of the following complications is this patient at increased risk of developing?

A 64-year-old woman presents for a routine health check. She reports intermittent episodes of colicky abdominal pain over the past year, which have since resolved. An abdominal ultrasound, as shown, was performed. Liver function tests are normal. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 3-week-old male presents with projectile vomiting after feeds. An upper GI series is performed (image shown). What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 38-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of sudden onset, severe left flank pain that radiates to his groin. He reports associated nausea and vomiting. He denies any fever, dysuria, or hematuria. His vital signs are: Temperature 37.0°C, Heart Rate 88 bpm, Blood Pressure 130/80 mmHg, Respiratory Rate 16 breaths/min, and SpO2 98% on room air. A urine dipstick is positive for blood. An ultrasound is performed, and the image is shown. Given the clinical presentation and the ultrasound findings, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 65-year-old male presents with groin pain and vomiting. The provided image was taken. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 4-week-old male presents with persistent non-bilious vomiting after feeding. He is mildly dehydrated, but otherwise active. An ultrasound is performed, as shown. What is the MOST likely acid-base disturbance?

A 64-year-old woman presents with a history of intermittent RUQ pain. She denies jaundice or fever. An abdominal ultrasound was performed, as shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 6-week-old male presents with persistent non-bilious vomiting after feeding. He appears hungry and has lost weight since birth. Examination reveals visible peristaltic waves across the abdomen. An abdominal ultrasound is performed, as shown. What is the most likely acid-base disturbance seen in this patient?

A 45-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of right upper quadrant pain, nausea, and subjective fevers. She reports that the pain is constant and worsened by eating. She has no significant past medical history and takes no medications. On examination, she is noted to be uncomfortable, with a temperature of 38.2°C, heart rate of 110 bpm, blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg, and an oxygen saturation of 99% on room air. Abdominal examination reveals marked tenderness to palpation in the right upper quadrant with guarding. Murphy's sign is positive. Laboratory investigations reveal a white blood cell count of 15,000/µL with neutrophilic predominance, total bilirubin of 1.8 mg/dL, alkaline phosphatase of 280 U/L, ALT of 160 U/L, and AST of 130 U/L. The provided image was obtained. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings on the image, which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 6-month-old infant presents for a routine check-up. The mother reports the infant is feeding well and has normal bowel movements. On examination, the infant is active and alert with normal vital signs. The abdomen is soft and non-tender. The image shows a finding on abdominal examination. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 62-year-old male with cirrhosis secondary to alcohol abuse presents with new-onset ascites and a palpable liver mass. His AFP is 600 ng/mL. A contrast-enhanced ultrasound is performed. What is the MOST appropriate next step in confirming the diagnosis and guiding management?

A 3-week-old male infant presents with persistent, non-bilious projectile vomiting after each feed. He appears hungry and eagerly accepts the bottle, but vomits shortly after. On examination, mild dehydration is noted. An abdominal X-ray is ordered, the relevant image is attached. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 3-year-old boy presents with sudden onset, intermittent, severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and lethargy. On examination, he is pale and has a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. An ultrasound is performed (image provided). Based on the clinical presentation and the image, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 64-year-old woman presents for an elective abdominal ultrasound. Several months ago, she experienced a few episodes of intermittent, moderate-to-severe right upper quadrant pain that resolved spontaneously within a few hours each time. She denies any associated fever, chills, nausea, vomiting, or jaundice during those episodes or currently. She has no significant past medical history other than well-controlled hypertension. On examination today, she is afebrile, her vital signs are stable, and her abdomen is soft and non-tender. Routine blood tests performed prior to the ultrasound, including full blood count, liver function tests (bilirubin, alkaline phosphatase, AST, ALT, GGT), amylase, and lipase, are all within their respective normal reference ranges. The provided image is a representative view obtained during her ultrasound examination. Considering the patient's history, current clinical status, and the findings demonstrated in the image, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 64-year-old woman presents for an elective abdominal ultrasound. Several months ago, she experienced a few episodes of intermittent, moderate-to-severe right upper quadrant pain that resolved spontaneously within a few hours each time. She denies any associated fever, chills, nausea, vomiting, or jaundice during those episodes or currently. She has no significant past medical history other than well-controlled hypertension. On examination today, she is afebrile, her vital signs are stable, and her abdomen is soft and non-tender. Routine blood tests performed prior to the ultrasound, including full blood count, liver function tests (bilirubin, alkaline phosphatase, AST, ALT, GGT), amylase, and lipase, are all within their respective normal reference ranges. The provided image is a representative view obtained during her ultrasound examination. Considering the patient's history, current clinical status, and the findings demonstrated in the image, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 2-year-old boy presents with abdominal pain and vomiting. An ultrasound is performed, as shown. What is the MOST likely lead point for this condition?

A 58-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of severe, constant right upper quadrant pain for the past 12 hours. He reports associated nausea and several episodes of non-bilious vomiting. He denies any fever or chills. His past medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension, both managed with oral medications. On examination, the patient is alert and oriented. His vital signs are: temperature 37.2°C, heart rate 105 bpm, blood pressure 150/90 mmHg, respiratory rate 20 breaths/min, and SpO2 97% on room air. Abdominal examination reveals significant tenderness to palpation in the right upper quadrant, with guarding. Murphy's sign is positive. Laboratory investigations reveal a white blood cell count of 14,000/µL with neutrophilic predominance, total bilirubin of 2.5 mg/dL, alkaline phosphatase of 250 U/L, ALT of 150 U/L, and AST of 120 U/L. The provided image was obtained. Given the clinical scenario and the findings on the image, which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial management strategy?

A 45-year-old male presents to the ED with left flank pain radiating to his groin. He reports nausea but no vomiting. Vitals are stable. A focused ultrasound is performed, as shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 5-week-old male presents with non-bilious projectile vomiting. An ultrasound is performed (shown). What acid-base disturbance is MOST likely?

A 64-year-old woman presents for a routine health check. She reports intermittent episodes of colicky abdominal pain over the past year, which have since resolved. An abdominal ultrasound, as shown, was performed. Liver function tests are normal. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 6-week-old male infant presents with a 1-week history of progressively worsening non-bilious vomiting, often projectile, occurring shortly after feeds. His parents report he is constantly hungry and irritable but has had poor weight gain. On examination, he is alert but appears thin. Vital signs are stable. Abdominal examination is soft, non-tender, with no palpable mass. An abdominal ultrasound is performed, the image of which is shown. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings depicted, what is the most appropriate initial management strategy?

A 5-week-old male infant presents with a 10-day history of non-bilious, forceful vomiting after every feed. His parents report decreased wet nappies and lethargy. On examination, he is pale, weighs 3.2 kg (birth weight 3.5 kg), has sunken eyes, and poor skin turgor. Vital signs: HR 170, RR 45, Temp 37.0, BP 80/50. Initial bloods show Na 132, K 3.1, Cl 88, HCO3 30. An imaging study is performed, shown in the image. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the imaging study, what is the most appropriate immediate management priority for this infant?

A 64-year-old woman with past colicky pain had this ultrasound. LFTs are normal. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A 62-year-old male with a history of hepatitis C presents with new onset ascites and right upper quadrant pain. His AFP is markedly elevated. A contrast-enhanced ultrasound is performed, as shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 4-week-old male presents with persistent projectile vomiting after each feed. He appears hungry and eagerly feeds, but vomits shortly after. An abdominal X-ray is ordered, the result of which is shown. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 64-year-old woman reports intermittent RUQ pain. She denies jaundice or fever. An abdominal ultrasound was performed, image shown. Besides referral for surgery, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 64-year-old woman presents with a history of colicky pain. An ultrasound was performed. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 3-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with a 12-hour history of intermittent, severe abdominal pain, drawing his legs up to his chest. He has vomited several times. His vital signs are stable: HR 110, BP 95/60, RR 24, Temp 37.2°C. On examination, he is irritable but comfortable between episodes of pain. His abdomen is soft but mildly distended. A focused abdominal ultrasound is performed, yielding the image provided. Based on the clinical presentation and the findings shown, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 3-year-old boy presents with a 12-hour history of intermittent, severe abdominal pain, drawing his legs up to his chest. He has vomited several times. His vital signs are stable: HR 110, BP 95/60, RR 24, Temp 37.2°C. On examination, he is irritable but comfortable between episodes of pain. His abdomen is soft but mildly distended. A focused abdominal ultrasound is performed, yielding the image provided. Based on the clinical presentation and the findings shown, what is the most appropriate initial therapeutic intervention?

A 3-year-old boy presents with sudden onset intermittent severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and lethargy. On examination, he is pale but haemodynamically stable. Abdominal examination reveals a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. An ultrasound is performed (image provided). What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 64-year-old woman presents for a routine health check. She reports intermittent episodes of colicky abdominal pain over the past year, but denies any current pain, jaundice, or fever. An abdominal ultrasound is performed, the image is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 3-year-old boy presents with sudden onset intermittent severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and lethargy. On examination, he is pale and has a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. An ultrasound is performed (image provided). Based on this finding, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 6-week-old male presents with projectile vomiting after feeds. He is otherwise well-appearing, with normal vital signs. An abdominal ultrasound is performed (image attached). What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 64-year-old woman presents for follow-up after experiencing episodes of right upper quadrant pain several months ago, which resolved spontaneously. She denies fever, jaundice, or current abdominal discomfort. Routine blood tests including LFTs are within normal limits. An abdominal ultrasound was performed, with a representative image provided. Considering her history and the imaging findings, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 3-year-old boy presents with intermittent abdominal pain, vomiting, and currant jelly stools. An ultrasound is performed, revealing the image shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?