imaging

A 2-year-old child is brought to the GP by their parents who are concerned about the appearance of their child's abdomen. The child is asymptomatic, feeding well, and has no history of vomiting or pain. On examination, vital signs are normal. Considering the clinical presentation and the finding shown in the image, what is the most appropriate initial management?

A 28-year-old female presents with a chronic cough and fatigue. She has no significant past medical history but reports recent travel to Southeast Asia. A chest PET-CT was performed. What is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 68-year-old male presents with fatigue and weight loss. The provided image was obtained. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 45-year-old male with Crohn's presents with persistent right lower quadrant pain. Stool studies are negative. Review the imaging. What is the MOST likely complication?

A 68-year-old male presents with worsening headaches and blurred vision. He underwent endovascular coiling for a posterior cerebral artery aneurysm 6 months ago. The attached image was obtained. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 72-year-old male presents with increasing dyspnea. He has a history of GORD. The provided image was taken. What is the most appropriate next step?

A 62-year-old male with a history of poorly controlled diabetes presents with fever, RUQ pain, and night sweats for 3 weeks. Initial blood cultures are negative. Imaging is performed, as shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 58-year-old male presents with vague abdominal pain and unintentional weight loss. He has a history of working on a sheep farm. The provided imaging was obtained. Which of the following serological tests is MOST appropriate?

A 62-year-old presents with jaundice and RUQ pain. The image was obtained during ERCP. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A 62-year-old woman presents for routine mammography. She has no palpable lumps or skin changes. Her previous mammogram two years ago was normal. The current mammogram is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 45-year-old male presents to the ED with left flank pain radiating to his groin. He reports nausea but denies fever or dysuria. Vitals are stable. A point-of-care ultrasound is performed, with the image shown. Assuming no contraindications, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 3-year-old presents with a 2-month history of increasing abdominal distension and intermittent pain. Physical examination reveals a firm, non-tender mass in the upper abdomen. Blood tests show mild anaemia. Vitals are stable. This CT scan was performed as part of the initial workup. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the provided image, which of the following investigations is the most critical next step for accurate staging and risk stratification to guide appropriate management in this paediatric patient?

A 62-year-old male with a history of poorly controlled diabetes presents with right upper quadrant pain, fever, and night sweats for 3 weeks. He is on immunosuppressants following a renal transplant 5 years ago. Blood cultures are pending. Imaging is performed, as shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 65-year-old patient with a history of smoking presents with a chronic cough and mild weight loss over three months. Physical examination is unremarkable, and vital signs are stable. Routine blood tests, including full blood count and inflammatory markers, are within normal limits. A chest X-ray revealed a solitary pulmonary nodule in the right upper lobe. Subsequent PET-CT imaging was performed as part of the diagnostic workup. Considering the findings demonstrated in the image provided, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 62-year-old male with a history of poorly controlled diabetes presents with right upper quadrant pain, fever, and night sweats for 3 weeks. He is on immunosuppressants following a renal transplant 5 years ago. Blood cultures are pending. Imaging is performed, as shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 42-year-old woman, nulliparous, presents to her general practitioner with a palpable lump in her left breast, noticed two weeks ago. She reports some mild, intermittent tenderness associated with the lump, which she initially attributed to her menstrual cycle, but it has persisted. She has no significant family history of breast cancer. On examination, there is a 1.5 cm, firm, mobile lump in the upper outer quadrant. No skin changes or nipple discharge are noted. Axillary nodes are not palpable. She is otherwise well. Which of the following represents the most appropriate initial management step?

A 65-year-old male with new onset ascites and elevated ALP has the imaging shown. What is the MOST likely primary malignancy?

A 64-year-old woman with past colicky pain has the ultrasound shown. LFTs are normal. What is the MOST appropriate next investigation?

A 58-year-old woman presents for her scheduled screening mammogram. She reports no breast lumps, pain, or nipple discharge. Her past medical history includes well-controlled hypertension and osteoarthritis. She has no known family history of breast or ovarian cancer. Physical examination reveals no palpable abnormalities in either breast or axillae. The mammogram is performed, and the image provided is a detail from the craniocaudal view of the left breast. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the provided image, what is the most appropriate immediate next step in the management of this patient?

A 35-year-old male presents with left flank pain and dysuria. An ultrasound is performed. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 32-year-old male, recent immigrant from a high-TB prevalence country, presents with a persistent cough and night sweats for the past two months. He denies fever or weight loss. Physical examination is unremarkable except for mild, diffuse rhonchi on auscultation. Sputum cultures are pending. A PET-CT scan of the chest was performed, the axial view is shown. Given the clinical context and imaging findings, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 28-year-old female, recently emigrated from Southeast Asia, presents to her general practitioner with complaints of fatigue, a persistent low-grade fever (37.8°C), and a non-productive cough that has been present for approximately one month. She denies any significant past medical history and is not currently taking any medications. Physical examination reveals slightly diminished breath sounds in the upper right lobe, but is otherwise unremarkable. Initial blood work, including a complete blood count and comprehensive metabolic panel, are within normal limits. A chest X-ray revealed a suspicious lesion in the right upper lobe, prompting a PET-CT scan, an axial slice of which is shown. Given the patient's history, clinical presentation, and the findings on the PET-CT scan, which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in the diagnostic workup?

A 55-year-old female presents with new onset right homonymous hemianopia 3 months post-aneurysm coiling. Review the image. What is the MOST likely cause?

A 68-year-old man with known alcoholic cirrhosis presents for routine surveillance. He reports mild fatigue but no other symptoms. Liver function tests are within his baseline. Alpha-fetoprotein is 150 ng/mL (normal <10). The provided images are obtained. Considering the clinical context and the findings demonstrated in the images, what is the most appropriate immediate next step in this patient's management?

A 65-year-old man with chronic hepatitis C and compensated cirrhosis (Child-Pugh A) presents for routine surveillance. His alpha-fetoprotein is 250 ng/mL. He feels well. The provided images are obtained. Considering the clinical context and the findings demonstrated in the images, which of the following management strategies is most likely to be the initial approach for this patient?

A 68-year-old male presents to the ED with abdominal distension, obstipation, and vomiting. He reports a history of multiple abdominal surgeries. An upright abdominal X-ray is performed. Based on the image, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 72-year-old male presents with new onset back pain. His CT is shown. What is the most appropriate initial management?

A 28-year-old immunocompetent patient presents with a chronic cough and low-grade fever. Initial investigations, including sputum microscopy, are negative. A PET-CT scan was performed (image shown). What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A 65-year-old male with recently diagnosed gastric mixed adenoneuroendocrine carcinoma presents with unintentional weight loss. Endoscopy confirmed the diagnosis. Staging imaging is provided. His ECOG performance status is 1. Based on the clinical context and the findings demonstrated, what is the primary goal of initial management for this patient?

A 45-year-old male presents to the ED with left flank pain radiating to his groin. He reports nausea but no vomiting. Vitals are stable. A focused ultrasound is performed, as shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 68-year-old male presents with abdominal distension and obstipation. An upright abdominal X-ray is performed. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 72-year-old man with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia presents for a routine health check. He is asymptomatic. A contrast-enhanced CT abdomen is performed, axial view shown. Besides optimizing medical management, what is the MOST appropriate next step?

A 62-year-old woman presents for her routine mammogram. She has no personal or family history of breast cancer. She denies any breast pain, nipple discharge, or palpable lumps. Clinical breast exam is unremarkable. Her previous mammograms have been negative. The current mammogram reveals findings as shown in the image. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 58-year-old woman presents with persistent fatigue, muscle weakness, and vague abdominal pain. Her serum calcium is 3.2 mmol/L (2.1-2.6 mmol/L), and PTH is 190 pg/mL (10-65 pg/mL). Renal function is normal. She denies any family history of endocrine disorders. Imaging studies are performed, as shown. Based on the clinical context and the imaging findings presented, which of the following represents the definitive management strategy for this patient?

A 70-year-old presents with iron deficiency anaemia and intermittent rectal bleeding. Colonoscopy was performed, and a representative image is shown. Biopsies are pending but malignancy is strongly suspected based on the endoscopic appearance. What is the MOST appropriate next investigation to guide definitive management?

A 38-year-old woman presents with acute onset left flank pain, radiating to the groin. She reports dysuria and hematuria. Vitals: HR 88, BP 130/80, Temp 37.1°C. A bedside ultrasound is performed, as shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A 68-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset of left-sided hemianopia and mild right-sided weakness. Her symptoms began approximately 4 hours prior to arrival. Initial neurological examination reveals intact language function and no cognitive deficits. A CT angiogram was performed, followed by endovascular coiling. The provided image shows a post-operative angiogram. Despite the intervention, the patient's hemianopia persists, and her weakness has slightly worsened. What is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 45-year-old male presents to the ED with left flank pain radiating to his groin. He reports nausea but no vomiting. Vitals are stable. A focused ultrasound is performed, as shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 62-year-old woman presents with right upper quadrant pain, fever, and leukocytosis. An abdominal CT scan is performed, as shown. She has a history of similar episodes that resolved spontaneously. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 72-year-old woman presents with sudden onset shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. She had knee surgery 10 days ago. She has a history of hypertension. On examination, she is anxious, respiratory rate is 24, heart rate 105, BP 130/80, SpO2 92% on room air. Lungs are clear. ECG shows sinus tachycardia. There is mild swelling in the operated leg. Considering the likely diagnosis, which initial investigation is most appropriate?

A 72-year-old woman presents with iron deficiency anaemia and a 4-month history of intermittent lower abdominal pain and tenesmus. Colonoscopy was performed, and the image shows a finding in the sigmoid colon. Biopsies are pending but highly suspicious for malignancy. What is the MOST appropriate initial staging investigation?

A 78-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of intermittent upper abdominal pain radiating to the chest and mild dysphagia. He denies shortness of breath or fever. Vital signs are stable. A chest X-ray is obtained. Considering the radiographic findings in the context of the patient's presentation, what is the most appropriate immediate management plan?

A 45-year-old male presents to the ED with left flank pain radiating to his groin. He reports nausea but no vomiting. Vitals are stable. A focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) exam is performed, with a view obtained as shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 32-year-old male, originally from a high-TB prevalence country, presents to the emergency department with a persistent cough for the past 3 weeks, night sweats, and a 5 kg weight loss. He denies any fever or shortness of breath. Physical examination reveals normal breath sounds bilaterally, with no wheezes or crackles. His vital signs are stable: temperature 37.2°C, heart rate 88 bpm, blood pressure 120/80 mmHg, and oxygen saturation 98% on room air. A chest X-ray was initially interpreted as showing a possible lung mass, prompting further investigation with a PET-CT scan, the axial view of which is shown. Sputum samples have been sent for microscopy and culture, but results are pending. Given the clinical presentation and the imaging findings, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 62-year-old woman presents with fatigue and bone pain. Serum calcium is elevated. The provided imaging was obtained. What is the MOST likely underlying cause of her hypercalcemia?

An 82-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with increasing shortness of breath and intermittent chest discomfort over the past week. She reports some difficulty swallowing larger food boluses recently but denies significant heartburn. Her past medical history includes hypertension and osteoarthritis. On examination, her vital signs are stable: BP 135/85 mmHg, HR 78 bpm, RR 18/min, SpO2 94% on room air, Temp 36.8°C. Auscultation of the chest reveals decreased breath sounds at the left base. A central venous catheter is noted in the right subclavian vein. Initial blood tests show a mild normocytic anaemia (Hb 105 g/L) and normal inflammatory markers. An urgent imaging study is performed. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings on the imaging study, which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of the patient's anaemia?

A 45-year-old male, who recently immigrated from India, presents to his primary care physician with a two-month history of progressive fatigue, unintentional weight loss of 7 kg, and intermittent night sweats. He denies any cough, chest pain, or shortness of breath. He has no significant past medical history and is not currently taking any medications. Physical examination reveals normal vital signs, including a temperature of 37.1°C, and clear breath sounds bilaterally. However, mild cervical lymphadenopathy is noted. Initial laboratory investigations, including a complete blood count and comprehensive metabolic panel, are unremarkable. A chest X-ray reveals a solitary pulmonary nodule in the right upper lobe, which prompts a PET-CT scan for further evaluation. An axial slice from the PET-CT is shown. Given the patient's clinical presentation, immigration history, and the PET-CT findings, which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in establishing a definitive diagnosis?

A 62-year-old woman presents for routine mammography. The image is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A 62-year-old male with a history of poorly controlled diabetes presents with fever, RUQ pain, and recent travel to a rural area. Lab results show elevated ALP and GGT. Imaging is performed. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 70-year-old male with cirrhosis secondary to NAFLD presents for routine surveillance. A new 3 cm lesion was found in segment VIII on ultrasound, with AFP 45. Contrast-enhanced ultrasound was performed, with representative images shown. Considering the clinical context and the findings demonstrated, what is the most appropriate immediate next step in this patient's management?