middle-aged woman

A 48-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 3-month history of increasing fatigue, exertional dyspnoea, and a persistent cough productive of small amounts of mucus. She mentions a history of recurrent 'sinus infections' over the past year, often treated with antibiotics. She has recently felt lightheaded on standing. On examination, her blood pressure is 95/60 mmHg, pulse 88 bpm, respiratory rate 20 breaths/min, and oxygen saturation 96% on room air. Chest auscultation reveals diffuse expiratory wheezes. Blood tests performed last week show haemoglobin 85 g/L (reference range 120-150), MCV 72 fL (reference range 80-100), and normal white cell count and platelet count. Spirometry performed concurrently shows an FEV1/FVC ratio of 0.65 (predicted >0.70) with partial reversibility after bronchodilator. Considering the clinical presentation and investigations, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 58-year-old woman presents with fatigue, muscle weakness, and abdominal pain. Labs show serum calcium 3.2 mmol/L and PTH 190 pg/mL. Renal function is normal. Imaging studies are shown. Based on the clinical presentation, laboratory findings, and imaging studies, what is the MOST appropriate next step in managing this patient?

A 45-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of progressive shortness of breath, dry cough, and fatigue. She has a history of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and is currently on hydroxychloroquine and low-dose prednisone. She denies fever, chest pain, or recent travel. On examination, her temperature is 37.2°C, blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, heart rate is 95 bpm, respiratory rate is 22 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation is 89% on room air. Lung auscultation reveals bilateral basal crackles. Laboratory tests show a hemoglobin level of 10.5 g/dL, white blood cell count of 4,000/mm³, and platelets of 150,000/mm³. Arterial blood gas analysis reveals a pH of 7.45, PaCO2 of 35 mmHg, and PaO2 of 55 mmHg. A chest X-ray shows bilateral interstitial infiltrates. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 45-year-old woman presents to the ED with right upper quadrant pain, fever, and nausea for 2 days. Her vital signs are: BP 130/80 mmHg, HR 105 bpm, Temp 38.5°C, RR 18 bpm, SpO2 98% on room air. An abdominal CT scan with contrast is performed, and a slice is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 45-year-old woman presents with a 3-month history of an intensely itchy rash on her wrists and ankles. On examination, you note violaceous, flat-topped papules. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 58-year-old woman, otherwise healthy with no significant medical history, undergoes a routine screening mammogram. The report notes a new cluster of pleomorphic microcalcifications in the upper outer quadrant of her left breast, measuring approximately 1.5 cm, classified as BI-RADS 4. Clinical examination reveals no palpable mass or skin changes. She has no family history of breast cancer. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this finding?

A 62-year-old woman presents for routine mammography. She has no palpable lumps or skin changes. Her previous mammogram two years ago was normal. The current mammogram is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 45-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 6-month history of fatigue, weight gain, and feeling cold all the time. She also reports hair loss and constipation. On examination, her skin is dry, and her reflexes are delayed. Her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, and her heart rate is 60 bpm. Laboratory tests reveal a low free T4 and elevated TSH. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 55-year-old woman presents for her routine biennial screening mammogram. She denies any breast lumps, pain, or nipple discharge. Her past medical history is notable only for well-controlled hypothyroidism. There is no family history of breast or ovarian cancer. Physical examination reveals no palpable abnormalities. The provided image is a magnified view from the craniocaudal projection of the left breast. Considering the clinical context and the findings demonstrated, what is the most appropriate immediate next step in the management of this patient?

A 62-year-old woman presents for routine screening mammography. She has no palpable lumps or skin changes. Her mother was diagnosed with breast cancer at age 68. The provided image is from her mammogram. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 55-year-old woman presents with 2 days of worsening right upper quadrant pain radiating to her back, nausea, and subjective fever. On examination, she is tender in the RUQ. Vitals are stable. Labs show WCC 15.0, CRP 120. This image is obtained. Based on the clinical presentation and imaging findings, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 42-year-old woman, nulliparous, presents to her general practitioner with a palpable lump in her left breast, noticed two weeks ago. She reports some mild, intermittent tenderness associated with the lump, which she initially attributed to her menstrual cycle, but it has persisted. She has no significant family history of breast cancer. On examination, there is a 1.5 cm, firm, mobile lump in the upper outer quadrant. No skin changes or nipple discharge are noted. Axillary nodes are not palpable. She is otherwise well. Which of the following represents the most appropriate initial management step?

A 45-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe right upper quadrant abdominal pain that started suddenly 3 hours ago. She describes the pain as sharp and radiating to her right shoulder. She has a history of gallstones but has never had surgery. On examination, she is febrile with a temperature of 38.5°C, her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, and her heart rate is 100 bpm. She has tenderness in the right upper quadrant with a positive Murphy's sign. Laboratory tests reveal leukocytosis and mildly elevated liver enzymes. An abdominal ultrasound shows gallstones and a thickened gallbladder wall with pericholecystic fluid. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 32-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 3-month history of fatigue, joint pain, and a facial rash that worsens with sun exposure. She also reports hair loss and oral ulcers. On examination, she has a malar rash and mild swelling of the small joints of her hands. Laboratory tests reveal a positive ANA and anti-dsDNA antibodies. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 45-year-old woman has a mother diagnosed with colorectal cancer at age 55 and a maternal aunt with endometrial cancer at age 60. What is the most appropriate initial step regarding genetic testing for hereditary cancer syndrome?

A 58-year-old woman presents for her scheduled screening mammogram. She reports no breast lumps, pain, or nipple discharge. Her past medical history includes well-controlled hypertension and osteoarthritis. She has no known family history of breast or ovarian cancer. Physical examination reveals no palpable abnormalities in either breast or axillae. The mammogram is performed, and the image provided is a detail from the craniocaudal view of the left breast. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the provided image, what is the most appropriate immediate next step in the management of this patient?

A 58-year-old woman presents for her scheduled screening mammogram. She denies any breast lumps, pain, or nipple discharge. She has no family history of breast cancer. Her physical examination is unremarkable. The image provided is a detail from her left craniocaudal view. Considering this finding, what is the most appropriate immediate next step in her clinical management?

A 55-year-old female presents with new onset right homonymous hemianopia 3 months post-aneurysm coiling. Review the image. What is the MOST likely cause?

A 32-year-old woman presents to the ED with acute lower abdominal pain. She reports nausea but denies fever or vaginal bleeding. Her last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed, the relevant image is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 64-year-old woman presents with a history of intermittent RUQ pain. She denies jaundice or fever. An abdominal ultrasound was performed, as shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 55-year-old woman presents with 24 hours of severe right upper quadrant pain, fever, and nausea. Examination reveals RUQ tenderness and a positive Murphy's sign. Vitals: T 38.5°C, HR 105, BP 130/80, RR 18, SpO2 98% RA. Labs: WCC 16, CRP 120, LFTs normal. An urgent abdominal CT is performed. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings on the provided imaging, what is the most appropriate definitive management strategy for this patient?

A 55-year-old woman with no palpable breast lumps presents for a routine screening mammogram. The image is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A 45-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of right upper quadrant pain, nausea, and subjective fevers. She reports that the pain is constant and worsened by eating. She has no significant past medical history and takes no medications. On examination, she is noted to be uncomfortable, with a temperature of 38.2°C, heart rate of 110 bpm, blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg, and an oxygen saturation of 99% on room air. Abdominal examination reveals marked tenderness to palpation in the right upper quadrant with guarding. Murphy's sign is positive. Laboratory investigations reveal a white blood cell count of 15,000/µL with neutrophilic predominance, total bilirubin of 1.8 mg/dL, alkaline phosphatase of 280 U/L, ALT of 160 U/L, and AST of 130 U/L. The provided image was obtained. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings on the image, which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 42-year-old woman presents with a new, firm, mobile lump in her left breast, noticed two weeks ago. She is otherwise well. What is the most appropriate initial investigation?

A 55-year-old woman undergoes routine screening mammography. She is asymptomatic with no personal or family history of breast cancer. Physical examination is unremarkable. The provided image is a magnified view from the craniocaudal projection of the right breast. Based on the findings demonstrated, what is the most appropriate immediate next step in the management of this patient?

A 58-year-old woman presents with persistent fatigue, muscle weakness, and vague abdominal pain. Her serum calcium is 3.2 mmol/L (2.1-2.6 mmol/L), and PTH is 190 pg/mL (10-65 pg/mL). Renal function is normal. She denies any family history of endocrine disorders. Imaging studies are performed, as shown. Based on the clinical context and the imaging findings presented, which of the following represents the definitive management strategy for this patient?

A 55-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 3-month history of fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath on exertion. She has a history of menorrhagia. On examination, she appears pale and has conjunctival pallor. Blood tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 70 fL, and low serum ferritin. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 38-year-old woman presents with acute onset left flank pain, radiating to the groin. She reports dysuria and hematuria. Vitals: HR 88, BP 130/80, Temp 37.1°C. A bedside ultrasound is performed, as shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A 45-year-old woman presents to the ED with right upper quadrant pain, fever, and nausea for 24 hours. Her vital signs are: HR 110, BP 130/80, Temp 38.5°C. An abdominal CT scan is performed (image attached). What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 52-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with fatigue, increased thirst, and frequent urination over the past three months. She has a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia, for which she takes lisinopril and atorvastatin. Her BMI is 32 kg/m². On examination, her blood pressure is 140/85 mmHg, and her heart rate is 78 bpm. Laboratory tests reveal a fasting plasma glucose of 8.5 mmol/L and an HbA1c of 7.2%. She is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management step for this patient according to Australian guidelines?

A 38-year-old woman presents with sudden onset, severe left flank pain radiating to her groin. She reports associated nausea but denies fever or dysuria. On examination, she is afebrile, blood pressure 125/75 mmHg, heart rate 80 bpm. Urinalysis shows microscopic haematuria. Serum creatinine is 80 µmol/L. An ultrasound is performed. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the provided image, which of the following is the most likely underlying mechanism causing the patient's pain?

A 60-year-old female with a history of a posterior cerebral artery aneurysm presents for routine follow-up. Review the image. What is the MOST appropriate management?

A 45-year-old woman presents with fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance. On examination, she has dry skin and a delayed relaxation phase of deep tendon reflexes. Her TSH level is elevated, and free T4 is low. What is the most appropriate treatment for her condition?

A 62-year-old woman with a 15-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to her general practitioner with complaints of worsening vision over the past six months. She also reports intermittent tingling and numbness in her feet, which has been progressively worsening. Her diabetes has been poorly controlled, with recent HbA1c levels consistently above 9%. She has a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia, both of which are managed with medication. On examination, her blood pressure is 140/85 mmHg, and her BMI is 32 kg/m². Fundoscopic examination reveals microaneurysms and cotton wool spots. Urinalysis shows microalbuminuria. Which of the following interventions is most likely to address the underlying pathophysiological mechanism of her visual symptoms?

A 16-year-old boy is diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes mellitus after presenting with polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. His blood tests show elevated blood glucose levels and the presence of autoantibodies against pancreatic beta cells. In contrast, a 55-year-old woman is diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes mellitus, characterized by insulin resistance and obesity. Which of the following best describes the pathophysiological differences between Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes?

A 58-year-old woman presents with persistent fatigue, muscle weakness, and vague abdominal pain. Her serum calcium is 3.2 mmol/L (2.1-2.6 mmol/L), and PTH is 190 pg/mL (10-65 pg/mL). She denies any history of fractures or kidney stones. She was referred for imaging, as shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in managing this patient?

A 32-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a 6-month history of worsening dysmenorrhea and pelvic pain, particularly on the left side. She reports no fever, weight loss, or abnormal vaginal bleeding. Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago and was normal. Physical examination reveals mild left adnexal tenderness. A CT scan of the pelvis was performed, the relevant image is shown. Given the clinical context and the imaging findings, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 55-year-old woman attends for her routine screening mammogram. She has no breast symptoms and no family history of breast cancer. Her physical examination is unremarkable. The mammogram is performed, and a finding is noted in the upper outer quadrant of the left breast, as shown in the image. Based on the appearance of the finding demonstrated in the image, what is the most appropriate next step in her management?

A 52-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with concerns about irregular menstrual bleeding over the past six months. She has a history of obesity, with a BMI of 32 kg/m², and was recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. She reports that her periods have been irregular for the past few years, often skipping months. She is not currently on any hormone replacement therapy. On examination, she has no signs of hirsutism or virilization. Her blood pressure is 140/85 mmHg, and her fasting blood glucose level is 8.5 mmol/L. Which of the following groups of women is most at risk for developing endometrial hyperplasia?

A 59-year-old lady with a past history of Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus and hypertension, and no smoking history, presents with a 3-month history of cough, blood-tinged sputum, night sweats, and a 5 kg weight loss. What are the most appropriate initial investigations for the likely diagnosis?

A 64-year-old woman with past colicky pain had this ultrasound. LFTs are normal. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

Mrs. Eleanor Vance, a 62-year-old retired teacher, presents for her routine biennial screening mammogram through the BreastScreen Australia program. She has no personal history of breast disease, and her family history is negative for breast or ovarian cancer in first-degree relatives. She is otherwise healthy, with a history of diet-controlled type 2 diabetes and osteoarthritis managed with paracetamol. She denies any breast pain, lumps, nipple discharge, or skin changes. Her last mammogram two years ago was reported as normal (BIRADS 1). Physical examination of both breasts and axillae is unremarkable. The current screening mammogram is performed. The image provided is a magnified view from the craniocaudal projection of the left breast, specifically highlighting an area that has been flagged for further assessment by the reporting radiologist due to a change from the previous study. Based on the appearance of the abnormality demonstrated in the provided image, which is the most appropriate method for obtaining a tissue diagnosis?

A 32-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 3-week history of joint pain, morning stiffness lasting over an hour, and swelling in her hands and wrists. She has no significant past medical history and is not on any medications. On examination, there is synovitis in the metacarpophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints bilaterally. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 35-year-old Aboriginal woman presents for a routine health check. She reports feeling tired lately and sometimes short of breath on exertion. She has a history of type 2 diabetes diagnosed 5 years ago, managed with metformin 500mg twice daily, and untreated hypertension. On examination, her blood pressure is 145/90 mmHg. Urinalysis shows 2+ protein. Blood tests reveal creatinine 180 µmol/L, eGFR 35 mL/min/1.73m², HbA1c 8.5%, potassium 4.2 mmol/L. Given these findings, which of the following is the most appropriate initial management step?

A 64-year-old woman presents with a history of colicky pain. An ultrasound was performed. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 32-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain and bloating. Her periods are regular. An abdominal CT scan is performed. Based on the image, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 31-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain and bloating for 3 months. Her periods are regular. Pelvic exam reveals mild adnexal tenderness. A CT scan is performed, with a relevant image shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A 62-year-old woman presents with right upper quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice. Initial labs show elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase. An ERCP is performed, and the image is obtained. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 55-year-old lady presents with a painless, white, lacy pattern on her buccal mucosa that has been present for several weeks. She feels well and has no significant medical history. What is the likely diagnosis?

A 45-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a 3-month history of epigastric pain that is worse at night and occasionally wakes her from sleep. She describes the pain as a burning sensation that improves with food intake but worsens a few hours after eating. She denies any weight loss, vomiting, or changes in bowel habits. She has a history of intermittent use of ibuprofen for chronic back pain. On examination, she appears well-nourished, with normal vital signs and mild epigastric tenderness on palpation. A urea breath test is positive. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?