Practice targeted AMC-style multiple-choice questions on perindopril.
A 58-year-old man presents to his general practitioner expressing concern about the appearance of his chest, which he feels has become more prominent over the past 18 months. He denies any pain, tenderness, or nipple discharge. His medical history includes well-controlled hypertension managed with perindopril and occasional use of ibuprofen for mild osteoarthritis. He reports no significant changes in weight, appetite, or energy levels. He is a non-smoker and drinks alcohol socially, approximately 5 standard drinks per week. He works as an accountant and reports no exposure to unusual chemicals or substances. On physical examination, his vital signs are within normal limits. Abdominal examination reveals no hepatosplenomegaly. Testicular examination is normal in size and consistency, with no palpable masses. The image provided shows the appearance of his chest. Considering the patient's presentation and the visual finding, what is the most appropriate initial investigation to pursue?
A 70-year-old man with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus is being treated with an ACE inhibitor. His medications include metformin, gliclazide and perindopril. He presents to the emergency department complaining of lightheadedness and dizziness, particularly when standing up. His blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg, and his heart rate is 70 bpm. His electrolytes show a potassium level of 6.2 mmol/L. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his hyperkalemia?
An 82-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with a 3-month history of intermittent retrosternal chest discomfort, worse after meals, and mild shortness of breath on exertion. They report occasional regurgitation but deny significant dysphagia. Past medical history includes hypertension and osteoarthritis. Medications are perindopril and paracetamol. On examination, vital signs are stable, and lung sounds are clear. A chest X-ray is performed. Based on the findings in the image, what is the most appropriate next step in management or investigation?
An 82-year-old patient presents to their GP with a 3-month history of intermittent retrosternal chest discomfort, often described as a burning sensation, worse after meals and when lying flat. They also report mild shortness of breath on exertion and occasional regurgitation, but deny significant dysphagia or weight loss. Past medical history includes hypertension and osteoarthritis. Medications are perindopril and paracetamol. On examination, vital signs are stable (BP 130/80, HR 75, RR 16, SpO2 97% on air), and lung sounds are clear. A chest X-ray is performed as part of the workup. Based on the clinical context and the findings demonstrated in the image, what is the most appropriate next step in investigation?
A 55-year-old man with a history of hypertension presents for a routine check-up. His blood pressure is consistently measured at 160/95 mmHg despite lifestyle modifications. He is currently on perindopril 5 mg daily. According to Australian guidelines, what is the most appropriate next step in managing his hypertension?