tuberculosis

A 45-year-old man presents with chronic cough, weight loss, and night sweats. Chest X-ray shows apical infiltrates. Sputum smear for AFB is negative. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 45-year-old male with poorly controlled diabetes mellitus and ischaemic heart disease, living in a rural Indigenous community, presents with fevers, cough, lethargy, night sweats, and occasional hemoptysis. What is the most appropriate initial investigation for suspected tuberculosis in this patient if he is unable to produce sputum spontaneously?

A 58-year-old non-smoker presents with a 4-month history of intermittent fever, night sweats, and a persistent cough productive of small amounts of sputum. He recently emigrated from a region with a high prevalence of tuberculosis. Physical examination is unremarkable. Chest X-ray reveals a solitary nodule in the right upper lobe. A PET-CT scan is performed as part of the investigation. Considering the findings demonstrated in the image provided in the context of this patient's presentation, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 45-year-old man presents to his GP with a 3-month history of gradually enlarging, painless swelling in the left side of his neck. He denies fever, night sweats, or weight loss. He emigrated from a region with high tuberculosis prevalence five years ago and has no known history of TB exposure or prior testing. On examination, there are multiple firm, non-tender, discrete lymph nodes in the left posterior triangle of the neck, the largest measuring about 3 cm. There are no other palpable nodes or organomegaly. His chest X-ray is clear. What is the most appropriate next diagnostic step?

A 35-year-old man, recently arrived from a country with a high burden of tuberculosis, presents to the emergency department with a 2-week history of worsening headache, low-grade fever, and general malaise. Over the past 48 hours, he has become increasingly drowsy and confused. He denies cough, weight loss, or night sweats. His past medical history is unremarkable, and he is not on any regular medications. On examination, he is febrile (38.5°C), drowsy but rousable, with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) of 13/15 (E3 V4 M6). His neck is stiff, and Kernig's sign is positive. Fundoscopy is normal. Chest auscultation is clear. Neurological examination reveals no focal deficits. Initial blood tests show a mild lymphocytosis, normal electrolytes, and normal renal and liver function. A non-contrast CT scan of the brain shows subtle basal meningeal enhancement. A lumbar puncture is performed. CSF Results: * Appearance: Slightly turbid * Opening pressure: 25 cm H2O (elevated) * White cell count: 150 cells/µL (normal <5), 80% lymphocytes * Red cell count: 5 cells/µL * Protein: 1.5 g/L (normal 0.15-0.45) * Glucose: 1.8 mmol/L (normal 2.5-4.5), simultaneous blood glucose 5.5 mmol/L Given the clinical presentation and investigation findings, what is the most appropriate immediate next step in management?

A 35-year-old healthcare worker has a positive tuberculin skin test (12mm induration) following a known occupational exposure. Her chest X-ray is clear, and she reports no symptoms. Which is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 45-year-old recent immigrant from a high-prevalence country has a positive tuberculin skin test (18mm) and negative chest X-ray. He has chronic hepatitis B. Which is the most appropriate initial management for latent tuberculosis infection in this patient?