weight loss

A 55-year-old man with a history of renal transplant on long-term immunosuppressive therapy presents with a 3-month history of intermittent right upper quadrant pain and unintentional weight loss. He denies fever or chills. Physical examination is unremarkable. Liver function tests show mild elevation of alkaline phosphatase and gamma-GT. Inflammatory markers (CRP, ESR) are slightly elevated. Imaging is performed as shown. Based on the findings and clinical context, what is the most appropriate next diagnostic step?

A 45-year-old male presents with a 3-month history of cough and unintentional weight loss. He is a former smoker. Physical examination is unremarkable. A chest X-ray showed a nodule, and a PET-CT was performed for further characterisation, an axial view is shown. Considering the imaging findings and clinical presentation, what is the MOST appropriate next diagnostic step?

A 45-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 2-month history of fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats. He has a history of smoking and works as a miner. On examination, he has cervical lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly. A chest X-ray shows bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 62-year-old man presents with a 4-month history of increasing fatigue, unintentional weight loss of 7 kg, and intermittent upper abdominal discomfort. He reports no change in bowel habits, dysphagia, or vomiting. His past medical history includes hypertension and osteoarthritis. He is a non-smoker and drinks alcohol occasionally. On examination, he is pale. His vital signs are stable. Abdominal examination reveals mild epigastric tenderness but no masses or organomegaly. There is no peripheral lymphadenopathy. Initial blood tests show haemoglobin 92 g/L (reference range 130-170), MCV 74 fL (80-95), ferritin 12 mcg/L (30-300), and CRP 18 mg/L (<5). Liver function tests and renal function tests are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial investigation?

A 45-year-old man presents to the general practice clinic with a 3-month history of fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats. He has a history of smoking and works as a construction worker. On examination, he has cervical lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly. Blood tests reveal anemia and elevated lactate dehydrogenase (LDH). A chest X-ray shows a mediastinal mass. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 45-year-old man presents with chronic cough, weight loss, and night sweats. Chest X-ray shows apical infiltrates. Sputum smear for AFB is negative. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 30-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 2-week history of a persistent cough, night sweats, and unintentional weight loss. She has recently returned from a trip to Southeast Asia. On examination, she appears thin and has crackles in the upper zones of her lungs. A chest X-ray shows cavitary lesions in the right upper lobe. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 68-year-old male presents with fatigue, weight loss, and vague abdominal discomfort. His past medical history includes a recent diagnosis of gastric mixed adenoneuroendocrine carcinoma (MANEC). The provided image was obtained as part of his staging workup. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 70-year-old woman with a history of diabetes presents with fever, cough, and weight loss. A chest X-ray shows a cavitary lesion in the right upper lobe. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 65-year-old patient with a history of smoking presents with a chronic cough and mild weight loss over three months. Physical examination is unremarkable, and vital signs are stable. Routine blood tests, including full blood count and inflammatory markers, are within normal limits. A chest X-ray revealed a solitary pulmonary nodule in the right upper lobe. Subsequent PET-CT imaging was performed as part of the diagnostic workup. Considering the findings demonstrated in the image provided, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 48-year-old woman, who emigrated from Southeast Asia 5 years ago, presents to her general practitioner with a 3-month history of a slowly enlarging lump in her neck. She reports mild fatigue and has lost approximately 3 kg unintentionally over the same period. She denies cough, fever, or night sweats. Her past medical history includes well-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus managed with metformin. She is a non-smoker and drinks alcohol occasionally. On examination, she has a firm, non-tender, mobile mass measuring approximately 3x4 cm in the left anterior cervical chain. There are no other palpable lymph nodes. Chest auscultation is clear. Abdominal examination is unremarkable. Initial blood tests show a haemoglobin of 118 g/L (normal 120-150), white cell count 7.8 x 10^9/L (normal 4-11), neutrophils 4.5 x 10^9/L, lymphocytes 2.8 x 10^9/L, CRP 15 mg/L (normal <5). Liver and renal function tests are within normal limits. A neck ultrasound confirms a cluster of enlarged, hypoechoic lymph nodes in the left cervical region, the largest measuring 3.5 cm, with some central necrosis noted. A chest X-ray is clear. Given the clinical presentation and investigation findings, what is the most appropriate next diagnostic step?

A 72-year-old retired builder with a 50 pack-year smoking history presents with a 3-month history of worsening cough, occasional streaks of blood in sputum, and unintentional weight loss of 6 kg. He reports mild dyspnoea on exertion, able to climb one flight of stairs before needing to rest. On examination, he is thin but alert, with an ECOG performance status of 1. Chest auscultation reveals decreased breath sounds over the right upper zone. A chest X-ray shows a 4.5 cm spiculated mass in the right upper lobe. There is no obvious pleural effusion or mediastinal widening. Full blood count, electrolytes, liver function tests, and renal function tests are within normal limits, except for a haemoglobin of 115 g/L. Spirometry shows FEV1 65% predicted, FVC 80% predicted, FEV1/FVC ratio 0.7.

A 62-year-old male presents to the emergency department with right upper quadrant abdominal pain, weight loss, and increasing jaundice over the past month. He has a history of chronic hepatitis C infection and heavy alcohol use. His vital signs are stable. Physical examination reveals hepatomegaly and mild ascites. Laboratory investigations show elevated bilirubin, alkaline phosphatase, and gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT). Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is significantly elevated. A CT scan of the abdomen with and without contrast is performed, as shown. Based on the clinical presentation and imaging findings, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 4-year-old boy presents with left flank pain and a palpable abdominal mass. His mother reports decreased appetite and recent weight loss. A CT scan of the abdomen is performed (image attached). What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

A 65-year-old male presents with a 3-month history of unintentional weight loss and early satiety. Gastroscopy and biopsy confirmed a gastric mixed adenoneuroendocrine carcinoma. Staging CT imaging is shown. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings on the provided imaging, what is the most appropriate initial management strategy?

A 10-year-old child with ADHD is started on stimulant medication. His parents report that he has lost weight and is not eating well. What is the most likely side effect of the medication?

A 28-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 2-week history of polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. She has no significant past medical history. On examination, she appears dehydrated, and her blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg. Laboratory tests reveal a blood glucose level of 18 mmol/L and ketones in the urine. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 63-year-old woman with a 20-year history of Crohn's disease presents with a one-month history of worsening colicky abdominal pain, bloating, and occasional non-bilious vomiting, associated with a 3kg weight loss. She reports reduced stool frequency. She is currently managed with mesalazine and azathioprine. Her vital signs are stable (BP 120/75, HR 82, Temp 36.8), and physical examination reveals mild right lower quadrant tenderness without guarding or rebound. Bowel sounds are hyperactive. Imaging is performed. Considering the clinical presentation, her current therapy, and the findings suggested by the provided images, which of the following represents the most appropriate next step in this patient's management?

A 35-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 3-month history of persistent cough, night sweats, and weight loss. He has a history of travel to Southeast Asia six months ago. On examination, he appears thin and has crackles in the upper zones of his lungs. A chest X-ray shows cavitary lesions in the right upper lobe. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 65-year-old male with recently diagnosed gastric mixed adenoneuroendocrine carcinoma presents with unintentional weight loss. Endoscopy confirmed the diagnosis. Staging imaging is provided. His ECOG performance status is 1. Based on the clinical context and the findings demonstrated, what is the primary goal of initial management for this patient?

A 65-year-old patient with a history of smoking presents with a chronic cough and mild weight loss over three months. Physical examination is unremarkable, and vital signs are stable. Routine blood tests, including full blood count and inflammatory markers, are within normal limits. A chest X-ray revealed a solitary pulmonary nodule in the right upper lobe. Subsequent PET-CT imaging was performed as part of the diagnostic workup. Considering the findings demonstrated in the image provided in the context of this patient's presentation, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 62-year-old male presents to the emergency department with right upper quadrant abdominal pain, weight loss, and jaundice. He has a known history of chronic hepatitis C infection. His vital signs are stable. Physical examination reveals hepatomegaly and mild ascites. The patient denies any alcohol consumption. Laboratory investigations reveal elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) levels. A CT scan of the abdomen with and without contrast is performed, as shown. Based on the imaging and clinical findings, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A farmer successfully treated for acute Q fever presents 6 months later with unexplained weight loss and night sweats. Physical exam reveals a new murmur. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 45-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 3-month history of fatigue, weight loss, and abdominal pain. He has a history of type 2 diabetes and hypertension. On examination, he has a palpable mass in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen. Laboratory tests reveal anemia and elevated serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH). A CT scan of the abdomen shows splenomegaly and multiple hypodense lesions in the spleen. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 67-year-old woman presents to her GP with fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats over the past two months. She has a history of smoking and hypertension. On examination, she has palpable lymphadenopathy in the cervical and axillary regions. Blood tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL, elevated lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), and a peripheral blood smear showing atypical lymphocytes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 72-year-old male presents with a 4-month history of increasing fatigue, anorexia, and a 10 kg weight loss. He reports occasional nausea but no vomiting or abdominal pain. His vital signs are stable. Physical examination reveals mild jaundice and palpable hepatomegaly. Blood tests show Hb 105 g/L, elevated AST/ALT, and a mildly raised bilirubin. An upper endoscopy showed a large gastric mass, with histology pending. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis was performed. Considering the clinical context and the findings on the provided imaging, what is the most likely implication for this patient's overall management strategy?

A 68-year-old male presents with fatigue, weight loss, and vague abdominal discomfort. His past medical history includes a recent diagnosis of gastric mixed adenoneuroendocrine carcinoma (MANEC). A CT scan of the abdomen is performed. Based on the imaging, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 45-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 3-month history of progressive difficulty swallowing both solids and liquids. He also reports regurgitation of undigested food and occasional chest pain. He has lost 5 kg over this period. On examination, there are no abnormalities noted. A barium swallow study shows a 'bird-beak' appearance of the lower esophagus. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 55-year-old man with a history of renal transplant on long-term immunosuppressive therapy presents with a 3-month history of intermittent right upper quadrant pain and unintentional weight loss. He denies fever or chills. Physical examination is unremarkable. Liver function tests show mild elevation of alkaline phosphatase and gamma-GT. Inflammatory markers (CRP, ESR) are slightly elevated. Imaging is performed. Considering the clinical context and the findings on imaging, what is the most appropriate next diagnostic step?

A 45-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 3-month history of persistent cough, night sweats, and weight loss. He has a history of smoking and works as a miner. On examination, he has decreased breath sounds and dullness to percussion over the right upper lobe. A chest X-ray shows a cavitary lesion in the right upper lobe. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 60-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 6-month history of progressive difficulty in swallowing both solids and liquids. He also reports unintentional weight loss and occasional regurgitation of undigested food. On examination, there is no lymphadenopathy or abdominal masses. A barium swallow study shows a 'bird-beak' appearance of the lower esophagus. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 32-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 2-week history of palpitations, anxiety, and weight loss despite an increased appetite. She also reports feeling hot and experiencing increased sweating. On examination, she has a fine tremor, warm moist skin, and a diffusely enlarged thyroid gland. Her heart rate is 110 bpm. Blood tests reveal suppressed TSH and elevated free T4. What is the most appropriate initial treatment for her condition?

A 65-year-old male with recently diagnosed gastric mixed adenoneuroendocrine carcinoma presents with unintentional weight loss. Endoscopy confirmed the diagnosis. Staging imaging is provided. His ECOG performance status is 1. Considering the extent of disease demonstrated, which of the following represents the most appropriate initial therapeutic approach?

A 35-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 3-month history of fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats. He has no significant past medical history and does not take any medications. On examination, he has palpable cervical and axillary lymphadenopathy. A lymph node biopsy reveals Reed-Sternberg cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 59-year-old lady with a past history of Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus and hypertension, and no smoking history, presents with a 3-month history of cough, blood-tinged sputum, night sweats, and a 5 kg weight loss. What are the most appropriate initial investigations for the likely diagnosis?

A 55-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 3-month history of fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats. He has no significant past medical history. On examination, he has palpable lymphadenopathy in the cervical and axillary regions. Blood tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL, white blood cell count of 15,000/mm³ with a predominance of lymphocytes, and a platelet count of 150,000/mm³. A lymph node biopsy is performed, showing small lymphocytic lymphoma. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

A 35-year-old male presents with hemoptysis and weight loss. PET-CT is shown. Bronchoscopy with biopsy is MOST likely to reveal which of the following?

A 45-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a 6-month history of intermittent diarrhea, abdominal pain, and weight loss. She reports that her symptoms are exacerbated by stress and certain foods, particularly those containing gluten. She has a family history of autoimmune thyroid disease. On examination, she appears pale and has a slightly distended abdomen with mild tenderness in the lower quadrants. Laboratory tests reveal microcytic anemia and elevated tissue transglutaminase antibodies. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 65-year-old male presents with a 3-month history of unintentional weight loss and epigastric discomfort. Endoscopy revealed a gastric mass, and biopsy confirmed a mixed adenoneuroendocrine carcinoma. Staging imaging is shown. His ECOG performance status is 1. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the provided images, what is the most appropriate initial management strategy for this patient?

A 72-year-old presents with recent onset tenesmus and passage of mucus. He has lost 4kg over 2 months. Colonoscopy was performed, and a representative image is shown. Biopsies are pending but the appearance is highly suspicious for malignancy. What is the MOST appropriate initial investigation to assess for metastatic disease?

A 62-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of worsening abdominal pain, fatigue, and a 10kg unintentional weight loss over the past 3 months. He reports a history of peptic ulcer disease treated with long-term proton pump inhibitors. Physical examination reveals mild hepatomegaly and trace ascites. Initial laboratory investigations show elevated alkaline phosphatase and gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT), with normal bilirubin and transaminases. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis with contrast is performed, and relevant images are shown. Given the clinical presentation and the findings on the imaging, which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 35-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 3-month history of fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats. He also reports a persistent cough that has recently become productive of blood-streaked sputum. He has no significant past medical history and is not on any medications. He recently returned from a trip to Southeast Asia. On examination, he is febrile and has bilateral crackles in the upper lung fields. A chest X-ray shows cavitary lesions in the upper lobes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 63-year-old woman with a 20-year history of Crohn's disease presents with a one-month history of worsening abdominal pain, bloating, and occasional vomiting, associated with a 3kg weight loss. She is currently managed with mesalazine and azathioprine. Her vital signs are stable, and physical examination reveals mild right lower quadrant tenderness. Imaging is performed. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the provided images, which of the following management approaches is most likely indicated?

A 45-year-old male, who recently immigrated from India, presents to his primary care physician with a two-month history of progressive fatigue, unintentional weight loss of 7 kg, and intermittent night sweats. He denies any cough, chest pain, or shortness of breath. He has no significant past medical history and is not currently taking any medications. Physical examination reveals normal vital signs, including a temperature of 37.1°C, and clear breath sounds bilaterally. However, mild cervical lymphadenopathy is noted. Initial laboratory investigations, including a complete blood count and comprehensive metabolic panel, are unremarkable. A chest X-ray reveals a solitary pulmonary nodule in the right upper lobe, which prompts a PET-CT scan for further evaluation. An axial slice from the PET-CT is shown. Given the patient's clinical presentation, immigration history, and the PET-CT findings, which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in establishing a definitive diagnosis?

A 55-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 3-month history of fatigue, weight loss, and abdominal discomfort. He has a history of chronic hepatitis B infection. On examination, he has mild hepatomegaly and jaundice. Blood tests reveal elevated liver enzymes and alpha-fetoprotein levels. An ultrasound of the abdomen shows a 3 cm lesion in the right lobe of the liver. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 65-year-old male presents with a 2-month history of fatigue, poor appetite, and 5kg weight loss. He reports mild upper abdominal discomfort. Physical examination is unremarkable. Initial blood tests show mild anaemia. An upper endoscopy revealed a suspicious gastric lesion, with biopsy results pending. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis was performed. Given the clinical presentation and the findings on the provided imaging, which of the following statements regarding this patient's likely prognosis and management is most accurate?

A 35-year-old male presents with a two-month history of fatigue, unintentional weight loss, and a persistent dry cough. He denies fever or night sweats. A PET-CT scan of the chest was performed (image shown). What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 62-year-old male with chronic hepatitis C presents with right upper quadrant pain, weight loss, and mild ascites. Laboratory tests show elevated alpha-fetoprotein. Imaging is performed. Based on the clinical context and the findings depicted in the provided imaging, which of the following factors is MOST important in assessing this patient's suitability for potentially curative surgical management?

A 72-year-old man presents with 4 weeks of shortness of breath (SOB), shoulder pain, weight loss, cervical lymphadenopathy, and finger clubbing. What is the likely diagnosis?

A 68-year-old male presents with fatigue, weight loss, and vague abdominal discomfort. His past medical history includes a recent diagnosis of gastric mixed adenoneuroendocrine carcinoma (MANEC). A CT scan of the abdomen is performed, as shown. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management?