emergency management

A 68-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of worsening left lower quadrant abdominal pain, associated with subjective fever, chills, and nausea. He reports some recent constipation. His past medical history includes hypertension and hyperlipidaemia, both well-controlled on medication. On examination, his temperature is 38.5°C, pulse 95 bpm, BP 130/80 mmHg, respiratory rate 18/min, oxygen saturation 98% on room air. Abdominal examination reveals tenderness and guarding in the left iliac fossa, with mild rebound tenderness. Bowel sounds are reduced. Digital rectal examination is unremarkable. Blood tests show a white cell count of 15 x 10^9/L (neutrophils 85%), haemoglobin 145 g/L, platelets 250 x 10^9/L, C-reactive protein of 120 mg/L. Urea, electrolytes, and creatinine are within normal limits. Liver function tests are normal. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed (image provided). Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the provided image, which of the following represents the most appropriate initial management strategy?

A 3-year-old boy presents with sudden onset intermittent severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and lethargy. On examination, he is pale and has a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. An ultrasound is performed (image provided). Based on this finding, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 62-year-old man with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to the emergency department complaining of palpitations and lightheadedness. He reports that the symptoms started suddenly about an hour ago. He denies any chest pain, shortness of breath, or syncope. His medications include metformin and lisinopril. On examination, he is alert and oriented. His blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, heart rate is irregularly irregular at 140 bpm, respiratory rate is 18 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation is 97% on room air. An ECG is performed, which shows an absence of P waves, irregularly irregular R-R intervals, and narrow QRS complexes. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 70-year-old man with severe COPD (FEV1 30% predicted), on triple inhaled therapy and supplemental oxygen, presents with a 3-day history of increased dyspnoea, productive cough with purulent sputum, and reduced exercise tolerance. He denies fever or chest pain. On examination, he is tachypnoeic (RR 24), saturating 88% on 2 L/min oxygen, with diffuse wheeze and prolonged expiration. His chest X-ray shows hyperinflation but no new infiltrates. His arterial blood gas on 2 L/min oxygen shows pH 7.32, pCO2 68 mmHg, pO2 55 mmHg, bicarbonate 35 mmol/L. Given this presentation, what is the most appropriate immediate management step?

A 55-year-old woman presents with 2 days of worsening right upper quadrant pain radiating to her back, nausea, and subjective fever. On examination, she is tender in the RUQ. Vitals are stable. Labs show WCC 15.0, CRP 120. This image is obtained. Considering the clinical presentation and imaging findings, what is the recommended timing for definitive surgical management?

A 55-year-old man presents with 2 days of left lower quadrant pain and mild constipation. He denies fever, nausea, or vomiting. On examination, he is afebrile, BP 120/70, HR 65, O2 sat 99% on air. There is mild LLQ tenderness without guarding or rebound. Bloods show WCC 11.5, CRP 30. A CT scan is performed. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the image, what is the most appropriate initial management plan?

A 3-year-old boy presents with sudden onset, intermittent, severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and lethargy. On examination, he is pale and has a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. Vitals are stable. An ultrasound is performed, shown above. Based on the clinical presentation and the provided image, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 3-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents due to a high fever and irritability. He has had a runny nose and cough for the past two days. On examination, he is lethargic and has a bulging fontanelle. A lumbar puncture is performed, and the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis shows elevated protein, low glucose, and a high white cell count with a predominance of neutrophils. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 68-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 12-hour history of severe, constant left groin pain. He reports a bulge in his groin that has been present for several years, which he can usually reduce himself. However, today he has been unable to push it back in, and the pain has become excruciating. He denies any fever, nausea, or vomiting. On examination, his vital signs are stable: temperature 37.0°C, heart rate 88 bpm, blood pressure 130/80 mmHg, respiratory rate 16 breaths/min, and oxygen saturation 98% on room air. Abdominal examination is unremarkable. Palpation of the left groin reveals a firm, tender mass that is non-reducible. The overlying skin is erythematous, but there is no crepitus. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed, and an axial slice is shown. Given the clinical scenario and the imaging findings, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A patient with community-acquired pneumonia has a CURB-65 score of 3. What is the most appropriate management setting?

A 55-year-old patient with a history of solid organ transplant on immunosuppressive therapy presents with a two-week history of intermittent fever, chills, and dull right upper quadrant pain. On examination, there is mild tenderness in the right upper quadrant. Blood tests reveal a white cell count of 14 x 10^9/L and CRP of 120 mg/L. Imaging is performed. Considering the clinical context and the provided images, what is the most appropriate immediate next step in the management of this patient?

A 55-year-old woman presents with 2 days of worsening right upper quadrant pain radiating to her back, nausea, and subjective fever. On examination, she is tender in the RUQ. Vitals are stable. Labs show WCC 15.0, CRP 120. This image is obtained. Based on the clinical presentation and imaging findings, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 65-year-old male presents to the emergency department with 2 days of constant right upper quadrant pain radiating to the back, associated with nausea and subjective fever. On examination, he is febrile (38.5°C) with significant tenderness and a positive Murphy's sign in the right upper quadrant. His white cell count is elevated at 15 x 10^9/L, and CRP is 120 mg/L. Liver function tests are within normal limits. Considering the clinical findings and the provided imaging, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 78M presents with cough, fever, confusion. BP 90/60, RR 30, Temp 38.5, SpO2 90% on air. CXR shows LUL consolidation. What is the most appropriate initial management?

An 82-year-old woman from an aged care facility presents with a 2-day history of increased confusion and lethargy. Her baseline is independent living with mild cognitive impairment. She has a chronic cough but no recent change in sputum. Vital signs: T 37.8°C, HR 95 bpm, BP 110/70 mmHg, RR 22 breaths/min, SpO2 92% on room air. Chest examination reveals decreased breath sounds at the right base. Given the clinical presentation and setting, which of the following is the most appropriate initial management step while awaiting the chest X-ray result?

A 45-year-old male with a known history of Blue Rubber Bleb Naevus Syndrome, characterised by recurrent gastrointestinal bleeding and multiple cutaneous vascular lesions, presents to the emergency department with acute onset severe, colicky abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. On examination, his abdomen is distended and diffusely tender with reduced bowel sounds. Vital signs are within normal limits. An urgent abdominal CT scan is performed. Considering the patient's history, acute presentation, and the findings on the abdominal CT scan, what is the most appropriate immediate management strategy?

A 68-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with right upper quadrant abdominal pain, fever, and jaundice. Her vital signs are: temperature 38.5°C, heart rate 110 bpm, blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, respiratory rate 20 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation 97% on room air. Initial laboratory investigations reveal: white blood cell count 14,000/µL, total bilirubin 6.0 mg/dL, alkaline phosphatase 450 U/L, ALT 300 U/L, and AST 250 U/L. An ERCP is performed, and the image is obtained. Following successful intervention, what is the MOST appropriate next step in managing this patient's condition?

A 72-year-old female on warfarin for chronic atrial fibrillation presents with a 2-day history of increasing pain and a developing lesion on her right lower leg. She denies trauma. Her INR is therapeutic at 2.5. Vitals are stable. Considering the clinical presentation and the image provided, what is the most appropriate immediate management?

A 6-week-old male infant presents with increasing frequency of non-bilious vomiting after feeds for the past week. He is otherwise well, afebrile, and has wet nappies. On examination, he is alert and interactive. Abdominal examination is unremarkable. Vitals are stable. You order an ultrasound, which is shown. Based on the clinical presentation and the provided image, what is the most appropriate immediate next step in management?

A 78-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 6-hour history of sudden onset, severe pain and swelling in his right groin. He reports nausea but no vomiting. On examination, there is a tender, firm, non-reducible lump in the right inguinal region. Bowel sounds are present. Vitals are stable: BP 130/80, HR 75, Temp 36.8°C. A CT scan of the pelvis is performed, shown in the image. Based on the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the image, what is the most appropriate immediate next step in the management of this patient?

A 68-year-old woman presents with 3 days of left lower quadrant pain. She reports mild nausea but no vomiting or fever. On examination, she is afebrile, BP 130/80, HR 78, O2 sat 98% on air. There is localised tenderness in the LLQ. Bloods show WCC 13.2, CRP 45. A CT scan is performed. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the image, what is the most appropriate initial management plan?

A 65-year-old patient recently started on warfarin for deep vein thrombosis presents with a painful, expanding skin lesion on their leg. They report the lesion appeared suddenly and has worsened over the past 24 hours. INR is 2.8. Considering the clinical presentation and the appearance of the lesion, what is the most appropriate immediate management step?

An 80-year-old presents with cough, fever, and new confusion. Vital signs: T 38.5°C, HR 110, BP 100/60, RR 28, SpO2 90% on air. Chest X-ray shows consolidation. What is the most appropriate initial management step?

A 68-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe pain and tenderness in his right groin, associated with nausea. He reports a long history of an intermittent swelling in this area, similar to the appearance shown, which he could previously push back. On examination, the swelling is firm, exquisitely tender, and irreducible. Vital signs are stable. What is the most appropriate immediate management?

A 78-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 6-hour history of sudden onset, severe pain and swelling in his right groin. He reports nausea but no vomiting. On examination, there is a tender, firm, non-reducible lump in the right inguinal region. Bowel sounds are present. Vitals are stable: BP 130/80, HR 75, Temp 36.8°C. A CT scan of the pelvis is performed, shown in the image. Integrating the patient's symptoms, physical examination, and the findings shown in the image, what is the most appropriate immediate next step?

A 58-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of right groin pain that started approximately 6 hours ago. He reports noticing a bulge in his groin for several months, which he could usually push back in. However, today he is unable to reduce it, and the pain has become progressively severe. He denies any fever, nausea, or vomiting. His past medical history includes hypertension and hyperlipidemia, both well-controlled with medications. On examination, his vital signs are stable: blood pressure 130/80 mmHg, heart rate 80 bpm, respiratory rate 16 bpm, and temperature 37.0°C. Abdominal examination is benign. Examination of the groin reveals the finding shown in the image. The area is tender to palpation. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 35-year-old man, recently arrived from a country with a high burden of tuberculosis, presents to the emergency department with a 2-week history of worsening headache, low-grade fever, and general malaise. Over the past 48 hours, he has become increasingly drowsy and confused. He denies cough, weight loss, or night sweats. His past medical history is unremarkable, and he is not on any regular medications. On examination, he is febrile (38.5°C), drowsy but rousable, with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) of 13/15 (E3 V4 M6). His neck is stiff, and Kernig's sign is positive. Fundoscopy is normal. Chest auscultation is clear. Neurological examination reveals no focal deficits. Initial blood tests show a mild lymphocytosis, normal electrolytes, and normal renal and liver function. A non-contrast CT scan of the brain shows subtle basal meningeal enhancement. A lumbar puncture is performed. CSF Results: * Appearance: Slightly turbid * Opening pressure: 25 cm H2O (elevated) * White cell count: 150 cells/µL (normal <5), 80% lymphocytes * Red cell count: 5 cells/µL * Protein: 1.5 g/L (normal 0.15-0.45) * Glucose: 1.8 mmol/L (normal 2.5-4.5), simultaneous blood glucose 5.5 mmol/L Given the clinical presentation and investigation findings, what is the most appropriate immediate next step in management?

A 78-year-old female on warfarin for chronic atrial fibrillation presents to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of increasing pain and discolouration in her right lower leg. She denies trauma or recent falls. Her INR this morning was 2.5 (target 2.0-3.0). Vital signs are stable: BP 130/80, HR 75, RR 16, Temp 36.8°C. Examination reveals the findings shown in the image. Considering the patient's history, current medication, and the clinical appearance depicted, what is the most appropriate immediate management?

A 75-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of worsening colicky abdominal pain, nausea, and multiple episodes of bilious vomiting. She reports no passage of flatus or stool for the past 18 hours. Her past medical history includes an open appendectomy 30 years ago and a hysterectomy 10 years ago. On examination, she is afebrile, heart rate 92 bpm, blood pressure 130/80 mmHg, respiratory rate 18/min, oxygen saturation 98% on room air. Her abdomen is distended and diffusely tender to palpation, with high-pitched tinkling bowel sounds on auscultation. A plain abdominal X-ray series, including the image provided, was obtained. Considering the patient's clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the provided image, which of the following represents the most appropriate immediate next step in her management?

A 68-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset of left-sided hemianopia and mild right-sided weakness. Her symptoms began approximately 4 hours prior to arrival. Initial neurological examination reveals intact language function and no cognitive deficits. A CT angiogram was performed, followed by endovascular coiling. The provided image shows a post-operative angiogram. Despite the intervention, the patient's hemianopia persists, and her weakness has slightly worsened. What is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 45-year-old patient with a known history of multiple cutaneous vascular lesions presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of intermittent, colicky abdominal pain and nausea. They report chronic fatigue and have a history of iron deficiency anaemia requiring occasional transfusions. On physical examination, vital signs are stable (BP 120/80, HR 75, RR 16, Temp 36.8°C). There is mild diffuse abdominal tenderness without guarding or rebound. Cutaneous examination reveals multiple blue-purple papules and nodules scattered over the trunk and limbs. An abdominal CT scan is performed. Considering the patient's clinical presentation, known history, and the findings demonstrated in the provided image, what is the most appropriate initial management strategy?

A 72-year-old man with a history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation presents to the emergency department with worsening shortness of breath and fatigue over the past two weeks. He reports occasional palpitations but denies chest pain or syncope. On examination, his blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, heart rate is 130 bpm (irregularly irregular), respiratory rate is 22 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation is 94% on room air. Jugular venous pressure is elevated, and there are bilateral lung crackles. An ECG shows atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular response. An echocardiogram reveals moderate mitral regurgitation and left atrial enlargement. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management step?

A 34-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with acute-onset shortness of breath. A CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) is ordered, shown in the photograph, confirming a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment option for this patient?

A 3-year-old boy presents with sudden onset intermittent severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and lethargy. On examination, he is pale but haemodynamically stable. Abdominal examination reveals a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. An ultrasound is performed (image provided). What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 28-year-old female presents with sudden onset severe right lower quadrant pain, associated with nausea and one episode of vomiting. Her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago. On examination, she is afebrile, heart rate 88, blood pressure 120/70. Abdominal examination reveals tenderness in the right iliac fossa. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed, with a relevant axial image shown. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the image, what is the MOST appropriate immediate next step in the management of this patient?

A 65-year-old presents with 2 days of left lower quadrant pain, fever (38.5°C), and nausea. On examination, there is localised tenderness in the LLQ. Vitals: BP 130/80, HR 90, RR 16, SpO2 98%. CRP is 150 mg/L, WCC 18 x 10^9/L. This image is obtained as part of the workup. Considering the clinical context and the findings on the image, which of the following represents the most appropriate initial management strategy?

A 70-80 year old lady, currently managed for pulmonary embolism with Enoxaparin 40 mg daily, is found to have multiple pulmonary emboli. Her vitals are within normal limits. What would be the most appropriate next step?

A 10-year-old boy with a known history of asthma presents to the emergency department. He developed symptoms three days after a viral upper respiratory tract infection. On examination, he is tachypnoeic (respiratory rate 48 breaths/min), tachycardic (heart rate 130 bpm), and hypoxic with an oxygen saturation of 91% on room air. He is speaking only in short phrases but remains alert and is afebrile. Auscultation reveals a widespread wheeze throughout his chest. A COVID swab performed yesterday was negative. Which investigation is the most appropriate next step in the immediate management of this patient?

A 78-year-old male on warfarin for atrial fibrillation presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe dyspnoea and right-sided pleuritic chest pain. He denies trauma. On examination, he is tachypnoeic, oxygen saturation is 92% on room air. Blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, heart rate 95 bpm. Chest examination reveals decreased breath sounds on the right. A CT scan of the chest is performed. Considering the patient's clinical presentation, medical history, and the findings demonstrated in the provided image, which of the following represents the most appropriate immediate management strategy?

A 70-year-old man with severe COPD (FEV1 35%) presents with increased cough, purulent sputum, and dyspnoea over 48 hours. He uses salbutamol PRN and tiotropium daily. His oxygen saturation is 88% on room air. Chest X-ray shows hyperinflation but no new consolidation. What is the most appropriate initial management step?

A patient presents with severe community-acquired pneumonia. Which initial investigation is most crucial for guiding immediate management?

A 55-year-old male presents with LLQ pain, fever, and increased WBC. A CT scan is performed, as shown. He is hemodynamically stable. What is the MOST appropriate initial management?

A 58-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe epigastric pain radiating to the back, which started suddenly 6 hours ago. He has a history of alcohol use disorder and has been consuming large amounts of alcohol daily for the past 10 years. On examination, he is diaphoretic and in distress, with a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg, heart rate of 120 bpm, and respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute. Abdominal examination reveals tenderness in the epigastric region with guarding. Laboratory tests show elevated serum amylase and lipase levels. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management step?

A 45-year-old male presents to the emergency department with severe chest pain radiating to his left arm, shortness of breath, and diaphoresis. He has a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia. On examination, he is diaphoretic, and his blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. An ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

A 55-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of left lower quadrant abdominal pain, associated with subjective fever and chills. He denies nausea, vomiting, or change in bowel habits. On examination, he is afebrile, heart rate 85 bpm, blood pressure 130/80 mmHg. Abdominal examination reveals tenderness in the left iliac fossa without guarding or rebound. White cell count is 14 x 10^9/L, CRP 80 mg/L. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed, the relevant axial image is shown. Considering the patient's presentation and the findings on the provided image, which of the following represents the most appropriate initial management strategy?

A 3-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with a 12-hour history of intermittent, severe abdominal pain, drawing his legs up to his chest. He has vomited several times. His vital signs are stable: HR 110, BP 95/60, RR 24, Temp 37.2°C. On examination, he is irritable but comfortable between episodes of pain. His abdomen is soft but mildly distended. A focused abdominal ultrasound is performed, yielding the image provided. Based on the clinical presentation and the findings shown, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 68-year-old man with a history of diverticulosis presents with recurrent, large volume rectal bleeding. Initial colonoscopy failed to identify or control the source. He remains haemodynamically stable after resuscitation. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 72-year-old woman on warfarin for chronic atrial fibrillation presents with a painful, rapidly expanding lesion on her right lower leg that began two days ago, shortly after her warfarin dose was increased. Her vital signs are stable, and her INR is within the therapeutic range. Considering the clinical presentation and the appearance of the lesion shown, what is the most appropriate immediate management?

A 72-year-old man with a history of a reducible inguinal hernia presents to the emergency department with severe groin pain and a firm, tender mass in the right inguinal region. He reports that he has been unable to reduce the hernia despite his usual maneuvers. He also reports nausea and vomiting for the past 6 hours. On examination, his vital signs are stable, but he appears uncomfortable. The mass in his groin is erythematous and exquisitely tender to palpation. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 3-year-old boy presents with sudden onset, intermittent, severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and lethargy. His vital signs are stable. On examination, he is pale. An abdominal ultrasound is performed, shown in the image. Based on the clinical presentation and imaging findings, what is the most appropriate next step in management?